Central Superior Services (CSS) Pakistan Competitive Examination Past Papers English (Precis & Composition)

English (Precis & Composition)

Read Online Past Examination Papers of Central Superior Services (CSS) Pakistan Competitive Examination.

CSS Past Papers English (Precis & Composition) 2015

Q1(a) - Synonyms

(1) Flagrant
a. Expensive b. Common c. Clerical d. Glaring

(2) Imminent
a.Important b. Historical c. Impending d. Inopportune

(3) Astute
a. Tedious b. Illogical c. Aggressive d. Shrewd

(4) Averse
a.Eager b. Reluctant c. Willing d. Unresponsive

(5) Prognosis
a. Offering b. Prediction c. Warning d. Advance

(6) Pungent
a. Sharp b. Disagreeable c. Smoky d. Anesthetizing

(7) Fiduciary
a. Trustee b. Assistant c. Notary d. Attorney

(8) Philandering
a. Spending b. Exaggerating c. Wandering d. None
(9) Poignant
a. Precious b. Tender c. Intense d. Sorrowful

(10) Contingent
a. Conditional b. Questionable c. Argued d. Rejected

Q1(b) - Antonyms

(1) Veteran
a. Novice b. Pious c. Intellectual d. Debutante

(2) Important
a. Trivial b. Clear c. Turning d. Wavy

(3) Irregular
a. Erratic b. Prevailing c. Difficult d. Enticing

(4) Spending
a. Sober b. Mute c. Revenue d. Spendthrift

(5) Clumsy
a. Foolish b. Inept c. Infer d. Dexterous

(6)Lauded
a. Disparage b. Applaud c. Settle d. Hesitate

(7)Cowardly
a. Bravely b. Poor c. Master d. Ignorant

(8) Praise
a. Censure b. Tickle c. Acclaim d. Skip

(9)Confuse
a. Lucid b. Extraordinary c. Dirty d. Muddle

(10) Neglect
a. Omit b. Destroy c. Mistake d. Nourish

Answers

Synonyms (1)D, (2)C, (3)D, (4)B, (5)B, (6)A, (7)A, (8)D, (9)C, (10)A
Antonyms (1)A, (2)A, (3)B, (4)C, (5)D, (6)A, (7)A, (8)A, (9)A, (10)D 

PART II

Q.2. Make précis of the following text and suggest a suitable title. (20)
In studding the breakdowns of civilizations, the writer has subscribed to the conclusion – no new discovery! – that war has proved to have been the proximate cause of the breakdown of every civilization which is known for certain to have broken down, in so far as it has been possible to analyze the nature of these breakdowns and to account for their occurrence. Like other evils war has no insidious way of appearing not intolerable until it has secured such a stranglehold upon the lives of its addicts that they no longer have the power to escape from its grip when its deadlines has become manifest. In the early stages of civilization’s growth, the cost of wars in suffering and destruction might seem to be exceeded by the benefits occurring from the wining of wealth and power and the cultivation of the “military virtues” ; and, in this phase of history, states have often found themselves able to indulge in war with one another with something like impunity even for the defeated party. War does not begin to reveal its malignity till the war making society has begun to increase its economic ability to exploit physical nature and its political ability to organize manpower; but, as soon as this happens, the god of war to which the growing society has long since been dedicated proves himself a Moloch by devouring an ever larger share of the increasing fruits of man’s industry and intelligence in the process of taking an ever larger toll of life and happiness; and, when the society’s growth in efficiency reaches a point at which it becomes capable of mobilizing a lethal quantum of its energies and resources for military use then war reveals itself as being a cancer which is bound to prove fatal to its victim unless he can cut it out and cast it from him, since its malignant tissues have now learnt to grow faster that the healthy tissues on which they feed.
In the past when this danger-point in the history of the relations between war and civilization has been reached and recognized, serious efforts have sometimes been made to get rid of war in time to save society, and these endeavours have been apt to take one or other of two alternative directions. Salvation cannot, of course, be sought anywhere except in the working of the consciences of individual human beings; but individuals have a choice between trying to achieve their aims through direct action as private citizens and trying to achieve then through indirect action as citizen of states. Personal refusal to lend himself in any way to any war waged by his state for any purpose and in any circumstances is a line of attack against the institution of war that is likely to appeal to an ardent and self-sacrificing nature; by comparison, the alternative peace strategy of seeking to persuade and accustom governments to combine in jointly resisting aggression when it comes and in trying to remove its stimuli before hand may seem a circuitous and unheroic line of attack on the problem. Yet experience up to date indicates unmistakably, in the present writer’s opinion, that the second of these two hard roads is by far the more promising.
Q.3. Read the following text carefully and answer the questions below: (20)
Experience has quite definitely shown that some reasons for holding a belief are much more likely to be justified by the event then others. It might naturally be supposed, for instance, that the best of all reasons for a belief was a strong conviction of certainty accompanying the belief. Experience, however, shows that this is not so, and that as a matter of fact, conviction by itself is more likely to mislead than it is to guarantee truth. On the other hand, lack of assurance and persistent hesitation to come to any belief whatever are an equally poor guarantee that the few beliefs which are arrived at are sound. Experience also shows that assertion, however long continued, although it is unfortunately with many people an effective enough means of inducing belief, is not an any way a ground for holding it.
The method which has proved effective, as a matter of actual fact, in providing of firm foundation for belief wherever it has been capable of application, is what is usually called the scientific method. I firmly believe that the scientific method, although slow and never claiming to lead to complete truth, is the only method which in the long run will give satisfactory foundations for beliefs. It consists in demanding facts as the only basis for conclusions, and inconsistently and continuously testing any conclusions which may have been reached, against the test of new facts and, wherever possible, by the crucial test of experiment. It consists also in full publication of the evidence on which conclusions are based, so that other workers may be assisted in new researchers, or enabled to develop their own interpretations and arrive at possibly very different conclusions.
There are, however, all sorts of occasions on which the scientific method is not applicable. That method involves slow testing, frequent suspension of judgment, restricted conclusions. The exigencies of everyday life, on the other hand, often make it necessary to act on a hasty balancing of admittedly incomplete evidence, to take immediate action, and to draw conclusions in advance of evidence. It is also true that such action will always be necessary, and necessary in respect of ever larger issues; and this inspite of the fact that one of the most important trends of civilization is to remove sphere after sphere of life out of the domain of such intuitive judgment into the domain of rigid calculation based on science. It is here that belief pays its most important role. When we cannot be certain, we must proceed in part by faith-faith not only in the validity of our own capacity of making judgments, but also in the existence of certain other realities, pre-eminently moral and spiritual realities. It has been said that faith consists in acting always on the nobler hypothesis; and though this definition is a trifle rhetorical, it embodies a seed of real truth.
Answer briefly in your own words the following questions:
1. Give the meaning of the underlined phrases as they are used in the passage. (04)
2. What justification does the author claim for his belief in the scientific method? (04)
3. Do you gather from the passage that conclusions reached by the scientific method should we considered final? Give reasons for your answer. (04)
4. In what circumstances, according to the author, is it necessary to abandon the scientific method? (04)
5. How does the basis of “intuitive judgment” differ from the scientific decision? (04)
Q.4. Write a comprehensive note (250 – 300 words) on any ONE of the following topics: (20)
(i) Education should be for life, not for livelihood
(ii) The art of being tactful
(iii) Human nature is seen at its best adversity
(iv) Spare the rod and spoil the child
Q.5. (a) Use only Five of the following in sentences which illustrate their meaning (Extra attempt shall not be considered). (05)
(i) Itching palm
(ii) The primrose path
(iii) Break one’s fall
(iv) Wash one’s hands of
(v) To become reconcile to
(vi) To militate against
(vii) To be cognizant of
(viii) Wages of sin
(b) Explain the difference between the following word pairs by defining each word. (Do only five) (05)
(i) Plaintiff, plaintive
(ii) Valet, varlet
(iii) Monitor, mentor
(iv) Complacent, complaisant
(v) Penitence, penance
(vi) Crevice, crevasse
(vii) Beneficent, beneficial
Q.6. (a) Correct only Five of the following sentences: (05)
(i) Have either of you seen my pen?
(ii) On attempting to restore the picture to its original condition, almost irreparable change was discovered.
(iii) The child is the prettiest of the two.
(iv) I was annoyed arriving late, also his rather insolent manner put me out of temper.
(v) He is anxious not only to acquire knowledge, but also eager to display it.
(vi) If he was here now, we should have no difficulty.
(vii) Due to unforeseen environments, we shall have to leave early.
(viii) People have and still do disagree on this matter.
(b) Rewrite One of the following passages, converting what is in direct speech into indirect, and what is in indirect speech into direct. (05)
(i) Just as we came inside of the valley Jamil met us,--“yes, the valley is all very fine, but do you know there is nothing to eat?”
“Nonsense; we can eat anything here.”
“Well, the brown bread’s two months old, and there’s nothing else but potatoes.”
“There must be milk anyhow.”
“Yes, there was milk, he supposed.”
(ii) Miss Andleeb said she thought English food was lovely, and that she was preparing a questionnaire to be circulated to the students of the university, with the view to finding out their eating preferences.
“But the students won’t fill a questionnaire,” said Miriam.
“Won’t fill up questionnaire?” cried Miss Andleeb, taken aback.
“No”, said Miriam, “they won’t. As a nation we are not, questionnaire-conscious.”
“Well, that’s too bad,” said Miss Andaleeb.

CSS Past Papers English (Precis & Composition) 2014

Q 1. Choose the world that is nearly most similar in meaning.

1) Apropos
a) Regarding b) Unexpected c) Misspoken d) Idea

1) Bulwark
a) Conundrum b) Festival c) Rampart d) Confuse

3) Epitome
a) Volume b) Essence c) Summit d) Deliverance

4) Regurgitate
a) Assimilate b) Reproduce c) Exemplify d) Study

5) Plutocrat
a) Magnate b) Priest c) Judge d) Astronaut

6) Inebriate
a) Dreamy b) Stupefied c) Unsteady d) Drunken

7) Prodigious
a) Unacceptable b) Phenomenal c) Discouraging d) Vain

8) Nuance
a) New word b) Sense c) Interpretation d) Subtle meaning

9) Canny
a) Obstinate b) Handsome c) Clever d) Stout

10) Sonorous
a) Loud b) Heavy c) Sleepy d) Bright

Q 2. Choose the world that is nearly most opposite in meaning.
1) Extenuate
a) Alleviate b) Preclude c) Worsen d) Subdue
2) Inadvertent
a) Accidental b) Disingenuous c) Forthright d) Calculated
3) Ornate
a) Spartan b) Blemished c) Sturdy d) Counterfeit
4) Flagitious
a) Cardinal  b) Mercenary c) Meritorious d) Askew
5) Malediction
a) Blessing  b) Termination c) Parochial d) Simian
6) Brusque
a) Gold  b) Opulent c) Gracious d) Suspect
7) Verdant
a) Dishonest b) Suspicious c) Moldy d) Arid
8) Epicurean
a) Ascetic  b) Slovenly c) Imprecision d) Providential
9) Quiescent
a) Active  b) Dormant c) Weak  d) Unconcerned
10) Loquacious
a) Reticent  b) Talkative  c) Garrulous  d) Verbose

Part-II

Q 2. Write a Précis of the following passage and suggest a suitable heading to it:

Probably the only protection for contemporary man is to discover how to use his intelligence in the service of love and kindness. The training of human intelligence must include the simultaneous development of the empathic capacity. Only in this way can intelligence be made an instrument of social morality and responsibility — and thereby increase the chances of survival.

The need to produce human beings with trained morally sensitive intelligence is essentially a challenge to educators and educational institutions. Traditionally, the realm of social morality was left to religion and the churches as guardians or custodians. But their failure to fulfill this responsibility and their yielding to the seductive lures of the men of wealth and! pomp and power and documented by the history of the last two thousand years and have now resulted in the irrelevant “God Is Dead” theological rhetoric The more pragmatic men of power have had no time or inclination to deal with the fundamental problems of social morality. For them simplistic Machiavellianism must remain the guiding principle of their decisions-power is morality, morality is power. This oversimplification increases the chances of nuclear devastation. We must therefore hope that educators and educational institutions have the capacity, the commitment and the time to instill moral sensitivity as an integral part of the complex pattern of function human intelligence. Some way must be found in the training of human beings to give them the assurance to love, the security to be kind. and the integrity required for a functional empathy.


Q.3 Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow. Use your own language.

In the height of the Enlightenment, men influenced by the new political theories of the era launched two of the largest revolutions in history. These two conflicts, on two separate continents, were both initially successful in forming new forms of government. And yet, the two conflicts, though merely a decade apart, had radically different conclusions. How do two wars inspired by more or less the same ideals end up so completely different? Why was the American Revolution largely a success and the French Revolution largely a failure? Historians have pointed to myriad reasons—far too various to be listed here. However, the most frequently cited are worth mentioning. For one, the American Revolution was far removed from the Old World; that is, since it was on a different continent, other European nations did not attempt to interfere with it.

However, in the French Revolution, there were immediate cries for war from neighboring nations. Early on, for instance, the ousted king attempted to flee to neighboring Austria and the army waiting there. The newly formed French Republic also warred with Belgium, and a conflict with Britain loomed. Thus, the French had the burden not only of winning a revolution but also defending it from outside. The Americans simply had to win a revolution.

Secondly, the American Revolution seemed to have a better chance for success from the get-go, due to the fact that Americans already saw themselves as something other than British subjects. Thus, there was already a uniquely American character, so, there was not as loud a cry to preserve the British way of life. In France, several thousands of people still supported the king, largely because the king was seen as an essential part of French life. And when the king was first ousted and then killed, some believed that character itself was corrupted. Remember, the Americans did not oust a king or kill him—they merely separated from him.

Finally, there is a general agreement that the French were not as unified as the Americans, who, for the most part, put aside their political differences until after they had already formed a new nation. The French, despite their Tennis Court Oath, could not do so. Infighting led to inner turmoil, civil war, and eventually the Reign of Terror, in which political dissidents were executed in large numbers. Additionally, the French people themselves were not unified. The nation had so much stratification that it was impossible to unite all of them—the workers, the peasants, the middle-class, the nobles, the clergy—into one cause. And the attempts to do so under a new religion, the Divine Cult of Reason, certainly did not help. The Americans, remember, never attempted to change the society at large; rather, they merely attempted to change the government.

1. Why and how did the Reign of Terror happen?
2. In what ways does the author suggest that the American Revolution was easier to complete than the French Revolution?
3. Of the challenges mentioned facing the French revolutionaries, which do you thing had the greatest impact on their inability to complete a successful revolution? Why?
4. Of the strengths mentioned aiding the American revolutionaries, which do you thing had the greatest impact on their inability to complete a successful revolution? Why?

Q 4. Write a comprehensive note (250-300) on any one of the following:
i) Actions speak louder than words
ii) Girls are more intelligent than boys
iii) First deserve, then desire
iv) Nothing is certain unless it is achieved.

Q 5. Use only five of the following in sentences which illustrate their meanings. (Extra attempt shall not be considered)
i) To bring grist to the mill
ii) To keep one's fingers crossed
iii) With one's tongue in one's cheek
iv) A storm in the tea cup
v) To talk through one's hat
vi) Hum and Haw
vii) To let the grass grow under one's feet
viii) Penny wise and pound foolish


Q 6. Correct only five of the following. Extra attempt shall not be considered.
i) Each furniture in this display is on sale for half price.
ii) He is abusing the money of his father.
iii) The duties of the new secretary are to answer the telephone, to type letters and bookkeeping.
iv) The new models are not only less expensive but more efficient also.
v) He complied with the requirement that all graduate students in education should write a thesis.
vi) No sooner we left the shop it began to rain.
vii) The population of Karachi is greater than any other city in Pakistan. 

CSS Past Papers English (Precis & Composition) 2013

(PART-I MCQs) (COMPULSORY)
Q.1. Choose the word that is nearly most similar in meaning to the Capitalized words:           (1 Mark each) (20)
 (1) BRISTLE:             (a) Regulate   (b)  Flare up (c) Frail     (d)      Exhilarate      (e)  None of these
 (2) DELUGE:             (a) Immerse   (b)  Rescue (c) Drown    (d)      Overflow       (e)  None of these
 (3) TIRADE:              (a) Argument  (b)  Procession (c) Angry Speech (d) Torture           (e)  None of these
 (4) QUASI:                 (a) Secret                (b)  Improper     (c) Seeming          (d) Whole           (e)  None of these
 (5) VILIFY:                (a) To Prove           (b)  Boast           (c) Defraud           (d) Defame          (e)  None of these
   (6) RIGMAROLE:    (a) Unnecessary      (b)  Disorder (c) Confused talk  (d) Game            (e) None of these
 (7) DEIGN:                 (a) Condescend  (b)  Pretend (c) Disparage        (d) Refuse           (e) None of these
 (8) PROLETARIAT: (a) Trade agreement (b)  Government Secretariat     (c)  Labouring Class
         (d) Wealthy Class (e)   None of these
 (9) LUDICROUS:      (a)   Liberal               (b)   Fearful (c)  Comic      (d) Praise Worthy (e) None of these
 (10) MALEFIC:           (a) Baleful  (b)   Belonging to a male person      (c)  Social
         (d) Fighting by nature   (e)   None of these
 Choose the word that is nearly most opposite in meaning to the Capitalized words: 
   (11) LANGUID:           (a) Feeble  (b)   Dull (c)   Vigorous         (d) Weak             (e) None of these
 (12) HIGH-STRUNG: (a) Nervous            (b)    Tense (c)   Costly      (d) Calm          (e) None of these
 (13) METTLE:             (a) Courage (b)    Boldness (c)   Cowardice       (d)   Spirit             (e) None of these
 (14) ABRIDGEMENT:(a) Epitome            (b)    Dissect (c)   Abstract           (d) Synopsis        (e) None of these
 (15) CAJOLE:              (a) Flaunt  (b)    Coax (c)   Beguile            (d) Flatter            (e) None of these
 (16) CELIBACY:        (a)   Virginity (b)    Wedlock   (c)   Chastity           (d) Single            (e) None of these
 (17) INCLEMENT:      (a) Rough              (b)    Unpleasant  (c)  Unfavourable  (d) Genial           (e) None of these
 (18) IRRESOLUTE:     (a) Ineffective (b)    Without resolution  (c)   Yielding   (d) Sturdy     (e) None of these
 (19) ANNEXATION:    (a) Supplement       (b)   Augmentation  (c) Appendix     (d)  Contraction   (e) None of these
 (20) INCUR:         (a) Shun              (b)   Run (c)    Blame          (d)   Meet            (e) None of these
 

 PART-II 

Q.2. Make a précis of the following passage and suggest a suitable heading.                                            (20+2=22)
 Culture, in human societies, has two main aspects; an external, formal aspect and an inner, ideological aspect.  The external forms of culture, social or artistic, are merely an organized expression of its inner ideological aspect, and both are an inherent component of a given social structure. They are changed or modified when this structure is changed or modified and because of this organic link they also help and influence such changes in their parent organism. Cultural Problems, therefore, cannot be studied or understood or solved in isolation from social problems, i.e. problems of political and economic relationships. The cultural problems of the underdeveloped countries, therefore, have to be understood and solved in the light of the larger perspective, in the context of underlying social problems.   Very broadly speaking, these problems are primarily the problems of arrested growth; they originate primarily from long years of imperialist – Colonialist domination and the remnants of a backward outmoded social structure.  This should not require
much elaboration European Imperialism caught up with the countries of Asia, Africa or Latin America between the sixteenth and nineteenth centuries.  Some of them were fairly developed feudal societies with ancient traditions of advanced feudal culture.  Others had yet to progress beyond primitive pastoral tribalism.  Social and cultural development of them all was frozen at the point of their political subjugation and remained frozen until the coming of political independence.  The culture of these ancient feudal societies, in spite of much technical and intellectual excellence, was restricted to a small privileged class and rarely intermingled with the parallel unsophisticated folk
culture of the general masses.  Primitive tribal culture, in spite of its child like beauty, had little intellectual content. Both feudal and tribal societies living contagiously in the same homelands were constantly engaged in tribal, racial, and religious or other feuds with their tribal and feudal rivals. Colonialist – imperialist domination accentuated this dual fragmentation, the vertical division among different tribal and national groups, the horizontal division among different classes within the same tribal or national group.  This is the basic ground structure, social and cultural, bequeathed to
the newly liberated countries by their former over lords.   
Q.3. Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow. Use your own language.   (20)
 The civilization of China - as every one knows, is based upon the teaching of Confucius who flourished five hundred years before Christ.   Like the Greeks and Romans, he did not think of human society as naturally progressive; on the contrary, he believed that in remote antiquity rulers had been wise and the people had been happy to a degree which the degenerate present could admire but hardly achieve.  This, of course, was a delusion.  But the practical result was the Confucius, like other teachers of antiquity, aimed at creating a stable society, maintaining a certain level of excellence, but not always striving after new successes.  In this he was more successful than any other man who ever
lived.  His personality has been stamped on Chinese Civilization from his day to our own.  During his life time, the Chinese occupied only a small part of present day China, and were divided into a number of warring states.  During the next three hundred years they established themselves throughout what is now China proper, and founded an empire exceeding in territory and population any other that existed until the last fifty years.  In spite of barbarian invasions, and occasional longer or shorter periods of Chaos and Civil War, the Confucian system survived bringing with it art and
literature and a civilised way of life.  A system which has had this extra ordinary power of survival must have great merits, and certainly deserves our respect and consideration.  It is not a religion, as we understand the word, because it is not associated with the super natural or with mystical beliefs.  It is purely ethical system, but its ethics, unlike those of Christianity, are not too exalted for ordinary men to practise.  In essence what Confucius teaches is something is very like the old-fashioned ideal of a ‘gentleman’ as it existed in the eighteenth century. One of his sayings will illustrate this: ‘The true gentleman is never contentious………he courteously salutes his opponents before taking up his
position,……..so that even when competing he remains a true gentleman’.   
Questions:
(1) Why do you think the author calls Confucius’ belief about the progress of human society as a delusion? (04)
(2) How did Confucius’ thought affect China to develop into a stable and ‘Proper’ China?         (04)
(3) Why does the author think that Confucian system deserves respect and admiration?         (04)
(4) Why does the author call Confucian system a purely ethical system and not a religion?         (04)
(5) Briefly argue whether you agree or disagree to Confucius’ ideal of a gentleman.          (04)

Q.4. Write a comprehensive note (250 – 300 words) on any ONE of the following:                                   (20)
     (i) Revolution versus Evolution.            (ii) Let us agree to disagree in an agree-able way.
   (iii) Say not, the struggle not availth.       (iv) Beneath every cloud there is always a silver lining.
    (v) In democracy an ideal form of government?

Q.5.(a) Use ONLY FOUR of the following in sentences which illustrate their meaning: (Extra attempt shall not be considered).                 (04)
      (i) The milk of human kindness   (ii) A rule of thumb      (iii) Out and out  
      (iv)   To wash one’s dirty linen in public (v)      To pay through the nose         (vi)    To lose face
(b) Use ONLY FOUR of the following pairs of words in sentences which illustrate their meanings. Extra attempt shall not be considered:             (04)
(i) Adjoin, Adjourn  (ii) Allay, Ally   (iii) Bases, Basis 
 (iv) Click, Clique   (v) Distract, Detract  (vi) Liable, Libel
Q.6. (a) Correct ONLY FIVE of the following: Extra attempt shall not be considered.                   (05) 
(i) My boss agreed with my plan.         (ii)   If he was here, he would be as wise as he was during the war. (iii) We have amusements in form of music.     (iv)  You get hungry for all the work you have to do. (v) We were glad for being there.         (vi)   I prefer the fifth act of Shakespeare King Lear the best of all.  (vii) After finishing my lecture, the bell rang.  (viii)  We needed not to be afraid.
 (b) Change the narration from direct to indirect or indirect to direct speech. (DO ONLY FIVE) Extra 
  attempt shall not be considered.             (05) 
(i) “If I had spoken to my father as you speak to me he’d have beaten me,” he said to me.
(ii) “How far is it”? I said, “and how long will it take me to get there”?
(iii) “Do you know any body in this area or could you get a reference from your landlady”?  he asked me.
(iv) She told me to look where I was going as the road was full of holes and very badly lit. 
(v) He wanted to know if I was going to the concert and suggested that we should make up a party and go  together. 
(vi) He said,  I must’nt mind if the first one wasn’t any good.
(vii)  “What a nuisance!  Now I’ll have to do it all over again”, he exclaimed.
(viii)  “I must go to the dentist tomorrow”,  he said. “I have an appointment”.

CSS Past Papers English (Precis & Composition) 2012

Objective Questions

Q1(a) - Synonyms
(1) Breach
a. Secret b. Reinforcement c. Difficulty d. Opening
(2) Gelid
a. Hot b. Soft c. Icy cold d. Hard
(3) Opulent
a. Corrupt b. Poor c. Proud d. Luxuriant
(4) Verisimilitude
a. Large number b. Variety c. Shades of colurs d. Being true
(5) Iota
a. Agreement b. Coin c. Column d. Small amount
Q1(b) - Antonyms
(6) Despise
a. Abhor b. Disdain c. Demolish d. Admire
(7) Lackey
a. Strange b. Poor c. Master d. Ignorant
(8) Egress
a. Decline b. Entrance c. Rude d. Angry
(9) Amalgamate
a. Punish b. Study c. Separate d. Reduce
(10) Insipid
a. Silly b. Tasty c. Active d. Thin
Q1(c) Complete the sentences
(11) Knowledge is like a deep well fed by _________ springs, and your mind is a little bucket that you drop in it.
a. External b. Perennial c. Immortal d. Lovely
(12) The unruly behaviour of children _________ their parents
a. Aggrieved b. Impeached c. Incensed d. Tempered
(13) He suggests that the meeting _______ postponed
a. Is b. Be c. Must d. Would be
(14) The landscape was truly_____, so arid that even the Hardest Plant could not survive
a. Lurid b. Parched c. Verdant d. Variegated
(15) His statement was so________ that everyone was left in doubt
a. Equitable b. Innocuous c. Dogmatic d. Equivocal
(16) I certainly do not______ your driving your car over the speed limit
a. Approve in b. Approve with c. Approve of d. Approve for
(17) The Eagle swooped and ______ a sleeping lizard
a. Carried down b. Carried up c. Carried off d. Carried in
(18) A young officer was _______ the task of taking prisoners to the rear
a. Charged by b. Charged in c. Charged for d. Charged with
(19) It seemed he was going to _____ him but he controlled himself
a. Lash out at *b. Lash out in *c. Lash out to *d. Lash out on
(20) I am not going to _____ this book at any cost
a. Part from b. Part up c. Part for d. Part with

ANSWERS:

1. d   2. c   3. d    4. d   5. d   6. d    7. c    8. b    9. c    10. c
11. b   12. c    13. b    14. b    15. d    16. c    17. c    18. d    19. a    20. d

PART-II

Note: (i) Part II is to be attempted on separate Answer Book.
(ii) Attempt all questions from Part II
(iii) Extra attempt of any question or any part of the attempted question will not be considered.

Q.2. Make a precise of the following passage and suggest a suitable heading. (20)

One of the most ominous and discreditable symptoms of the want of candour in present-day sociology is the deliberate neglect of the population question. It is or should be transparently clear that if the State is resolved, on humanitarian grounds, to inhibit the operation of natural selection, some rational regulation of population, both as regards quantity and quality, is
imperatively necessary. There is no self-acting adjustment, apart from starvation, of numbers to the means of subsistence. If all natural checks are removed, a population in advance of the optimum number will be produced, and maintained at the cost of a reduction in the standard of living. When this pressure begins to be felt, that section of the population which is capable of reflection, and which has a standard of living which may be lost, will voluntarily restrict its numbers, even to the point of failing to replace deaths by an equivalent number of new births; while the underworld, which always exists in every civilised society the failures and misfits and derelicts, moral and physical will exercise no restraint, and will be a constantly increasing drain upon the national resources. The population will thus be recruited, in a very undue proportion, by those strata of society which do not possess the qualities of useful citizens.

The importance of the problem would seem to be sufficiently obvious. But politicians know that the subject is unpopular. The unborn have no votes. Employers like a surplus of labour, which can be drawn upon when trade is good. Militarists want as much food for powder as they can get. Revolutionists instinctively oppose any real remedy for social evils; they know that every unwanted child is a potential insurgent. All three can appeal to a quasi-religious prejudice, resting apparently on the ancient theory of natural rights, which were supposed to include the right of unlimited procreation. This objection is now chiefly urged by celibate or childless priests; but it is held with such fanatical vehemence that the fear of losing the votes which they control is a welcome excuse for the baser sort of politician to shelve the subject as inopportune. The Socialist calculation is probably erroneous; for experience has shown that it is aspiration, not desperation, that makes revolutions.

Q.3. Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow. Use your own language. (20)

Human beings are afraid of death just as children feel afraid of darkness. The fear of darkness of kids increased by the stories of the heard ghosts and thieves. In the same way, the fear of human being is increased by the stories which they heard about the agony of dying man. If a human being regards death as a kind of punishment for his sins he has committed and if he looks upon death as a means of making an entry into another world, he is certainly taking a religious and sacred view of death. But if a human being looks upon death as a law of nature and then feels afraid of it, his attitude is of cowardice. However, even in religious meditations about death there is sometimes a mixture of folly and superstition. Monks have written books in which they have described the painful experiences which they underwent by inflicting physical tortures upon themselves as a form of self purification. Thus, one may think that the pains of death must be indescribably agonizing. Such books and such thoughts increase a man's fear of death.

Seneca, the Roman Philosopher is of the view that the circumstances and ceremonies of death frighten people more than death itself would do. A dyeing man is heard uttering groans; his body is seen undergoing convulsions; his face appears to be absolutely bloodless and pale; at his death his friends begin to weep and his relations put on mourning clothes; various rituals are performed. All such facts make death appear more horrible than it would be otherwise.

1. What is the difference between human beings' fear of death and children's fear of darkness?
2. What is a religious and sacred view of death?
3. What are the painful experiences described by the Monks in their books?
4. What are the views of Seneca about death?
5. What are the facts that make death appear more horrible than it would be otherwise?

Q.4 Write a comprehensive note (250 - 300) on any ONE of the following:

1. Self done is Well done
2. The Bough that bears most bend most
3. Nearer the Church, farther from God
4. Rich men have no fault
5. Cut your coat according to your cloth

Q.5 Use ONLY FIVE of the following in sentences which illustrate their meaning. Extra attempt shall not be considered.

1. Wool gathering
2. Under the harrow
3. Cold comfort
4. A gold digger
5. Walk with God
6. On the thin ice
7. A queer fish
8. Unearthly hour

Q.6 (a) Correct ONLY FIVE of the following: Extra attempt shall not be considered.

1. A ten feet long snake made people run here and there
2. We are going to the concert, and so they are.
3. Enclosed with this letter was a signed Affidavit and a carbon copy of his request to our main office.
4. Fear from God.
5. Pakistan has and will support the Kashmiris.
6. He has come yesterday.
7. Arshad's down fall was due to nothing else than pride.
8. Do not avoid to consult a doctor.

(b) Change the narration from direct to indirect or indirect to direct speech (DO ONLY FIVE). Extra attempt shall not be considered.

1. He said to us, "You cannot do this problem alone".
2. The beggar asked the rich lady if she could not pity the sufferings of an old and miserable man and help him with a rupee or two.
3. The Commander said to the soldiers, "March on".
4. He entreated his master respectfully to pardon him as it was his first fault.
5. "Do you really come from America? How do you feel in Pakistan?" Said I the stranger.
6. The officer threatened the peon to come in time otherwise he would be turned out.
7. People wished that the Quaid e Azam had been alive those days to their fate.
8. They said, "Brave! Imran, what a shot".

CSS Past Papers English (Precis & Composition) 2011

(PART-I MCQs) (COMPULSORY)

Q.1. (a) Choose the word that is nearly similar in meaning to the word in Capital letters. (Do only FIVE)

Extra attempt of any Part of the question shall not be considered.    (05)

(i) CHRONICLE:
(a) Daily ritual (b) Widely held belief (c) Account of events.
(ii) FLUME:
(a) Sea bird with a wing span four times its body length
(b) Narrow gorge with a stream running through it
(c) Warm summer wind.
(iii) EPITAPH:
(a) Editorial (b) Clever head line (c) Tomb stone inscription.
(iv) LACONIC:
(a) Concise (b) Weekly (c) Circular.
(v) SHINGLE:
(a) Gravelly beach (b) Exposed sand bar (c) Group of dolphins.
(vi) FILIAL:
(a) Related by marriage (b) Of sons and daughters(c) Of brothers.
(vii) MISOPEDIA:
(a) A hatred for children (b) Middle age (c) Family history.
(viii) MENAGE:
(a) Marriage vow (b) Household (c) Golden years.

       (b) Choose the word that is nearly most opposite in meaning to the Capitalized words. (Do only FIVE)  Extra attempt of any Part of the question shall not be considered.          (05)

(ix) ANNIHILATE:
(a) Supplement (b) Augment (c) Append (d) Contract.
(x) BRACE:
(a) Prop (b) Knock (c) Invigorate (d) Refresh.
(xi) BRUSQUE:
(a) Gruff (b) Curt (c) Smooth (d) Discourteous.
(xii) CONCORD:
(a) Amity (b) Accord (c) Variance (d) Unity.
(xiii) CONSCIENTIOUS:
(a) Uncorrupt (b) Honourable (c) Principled (d) Profligate.
(xiv) DIPLOMATIC:
(a) Sagacious (b) Shrewd (c) Bungling (d) Prudent.
(xv) HYPOCRISY:
(a) Uprightness (b) Pretence (c) Cant (d) Deceit.
(xvi) ONEROUS:
(a) Burdensome (b) Wearing (c) Difficult (d) Fluent.
ANSWERS:
Q NO 01
i) C   ii) B  iii) C  iv) A  v) A  vi) A not sure  vii) A  viii) B

 PART-II

Q.2. Make a précis of the given passage and suggest a suitable heading:               (20 + 5 = 25)
The Psychological causes of unhappiness, it is clear, are many and various. But all have something in
common. The typical unhappy man is one who having been deprived in youth of some normal satisfaction, has come to value this one kind of satisfaction more than any other, and has, therefore, given to his life a one-sided direction, together with a  quite undue emphasis upon the achievement as opposed to the activities connected with it. There is, however, a further development which is very common in the present day. A man may feel so completely thwarted that he seeks no form of satisfaction, but only distraction and oblivion. He then becomes a devotee of “Pleasure”. That is to say, he seeks to make life bearable by becoming less alive. Drunkenness, for example, is temporary suicide; the happiness that it brings is merely negative, a momentary cessation of unhappiness. The narcissist and the megalomaniac believe that happiness is possible, though they may adopt mistaken means of achieving it; but the man who seeks intoxication, in whatever form, has given up hope except in oblivion. In his case the first thing to be done is to persuade him that happiness is desirable. Men, who are unhappy, like men who sleep badly, are always proud of the fact. Perhaps their pride is like that of the fox who had lost his tail; if so, the way to cure it is to point out to them how they can grow a new tail. Very few men, I believe, will deliberately choose unhappiness if they see a way of being happy. I do not deny that such men exist, but they are not sufficiently numerous to be important. It is common in our day, as it has been in many other periods of the world’s history, to suppose that those among us who are wise have seen through all the enthusiasms of earlier times and have become aware that there is nothing left to live for. The man who hold this view are genuinely unhappy, but they are proud of their unhappiness, which they attribute to the nature of the universe and consider to be the only rational attitude for an enlightened man. Their pride in their
unhappiness makes less sophisticated people suspicious of its genuineness; they think that the man who enjoys  being miserable is not miserable.
Q.3. Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow:           (5 x 4 = 20)
Knowledge is acquired when we succeed in fitting a new experience in the system of concepts based
upon our old experiences. Understanding comes when we liberate ourselves from the old and so make possible a direct, unmediated contact with the new, the mystery, moment by moment, of our existence. The new is the given on every level of experience – given perceptions, given emotions and thoughts, given states of unstructured awareness, given relationships with things and persons. The old is our home-made system of ideas and word patterns. It is the stock of finished articles fabricated out of the given mystery by memory and analytical reasoning, by habit and automatic associations of accepted notions. Knowledge is primarily a knowledge of these finished articles. Understanding is primarily direct awareness of the raw material. Knowledge is always in terms of concepts and can be passed on by means of words or other symbols. Understanding is not conceptual and therefore cannot be passed on. It is an immediate experience, and immediate experience can only be talked about (very inadequately), never shared. Nobody can actually feel another’s pain or grief, another’s love or joy, or hunger. And similarly no body can experience another’s understanding of a given event or situation. There can, of course, be knowledge of such an understanding, and this knowledge may be passed on in speech or writing, or by means of other symbols. Such communicable knowledge is useful as a reminder that there have been specific understandings in the past, and that understanding is at all times possible. But we must always remember that knowledge of understanding is not the same thing as the understanding which is the raw material of that knowledge. It is as different from understanding as the doctor’s prescription for pencitin is different from penicillin.
Questions:
(i) How is knowledge different from understanding?
(ii) Explain why understanding cannot be passed on.
(iii) Is the knowledge of understanding possible? If it is, how may it be passed on?
(iv) How does the author explain that knowledge of understanding is not the same thing as the
understanding?
(v) How far do you agree with the author in his definitions of knowledge and understanding? Give
reasons for your answer.
Q.4. Write a comprehensive note (250 – 300 words) on any ONE of the following:                  (20)
(i) Child is the father of man.
(ii) Life succeeds in that it seems to fail.
(iii) Yellow Journalism.
(iv) The violence of war can be diluted with love.
(v) Love is a beautiful but baleful god.
Q.5. (a) Use ONLY FIVE of the following in sentences which illustrate their meaning: Extra attempt shall not be considered.                                (05)
(i) To eat one’s words. (ii) Dog in the manger (iii) A close shave
(iv) A Freudian Ship (v) A Gordian knot (vi) A cog in the machine
(vii) A sugar daddy (viii) A wet blanket.
(b) Use ONLY FIVE of the following Pairs of words in sentences which illustrate their meaning: Extra attempt shall not be considered.                      (10)
(i) Capital, Capitol (ii) Assay, Essay (iii) Envelop, envelope
(iv) Decree, Degree (v) Desolate, Dissolute (vi) Species, Specie
(vii) Tortuous, Torturous (viii) Wet, Whet
Q.6. (a) Correct ONLY FIVE of the following: Extra attempt shall not be considered.                 (05)
(i) Please speak to the concerned clerk.
(ii) You have got time too short for that.
(iii) Not only he was a thief, but he was also a murderer.
(iv) They thought that the plan would be succeeded.
(v) It is unlikely that he wins the race.
(vi) My uncle has told me something about it yesterday.
(vii) I hoped that by the time I would have got there it would have stopped raining.
(viii) They prevented the driver to stop.
(b) Change the narration from direct to indirect or indirect to direct speech. (DO ONLY FIVE) Extra
attempt shall not be considered.                        (05)
(i) “I couldn’t get into the house because I had lost my key, so I had to break a window”, he
said.
(ii) “Would you like to see over the house or are you more interested in the garden”? She asked
me.
(iii) “Please send whatever you can spare. All contributions will be acknowledged immediately”,
Said the Secretary of the disastrous fund.
(iv) She asked if he’d like to go to the concert and I said I was sure he would.
(v) I told her to stop making a fuss about nothing and said that she was lucky to have got a seat
at all.
(vi) The teacher said, “You must not forget what I told you last lesson. I shall expect you to be
able to repeat it next lesson by heart.”
(vii) He asked me if he should leave it in the car.
(viii) He said, “May I open the window? It’s rather hot in here.” 

CSS Past Papers English (Precis & Composition) 2010

PART – I (MCQs)
Q.1.(a) Pick the word that is nearly similar in meaning to the capitalized word.      (5)
(Do any
FIVE). Extra attempt of any Part of the question will not be considered.
(i) ACRIMONIOUS
(a) Bitter (b) Provocative (c) Cheap (d) Volatile
(ii) CALLIGRAPHY
(a) Computers (b) Handwriting (c) Blood pressure (d) Brain waves
(iii) UNEQUIVOCAL
(a) Variable (b) Plain (c) Unmistakable (d) Negligent
(iv) DEMISE
(a) Conclude (b) End (c) Affection (d) Death
(v) INCENDIARY
(a) Happy (b) Sneer (c) Causing fire (d) Jolly
(vi) TOUCHSTONE
(a) Remind (b) A hall (c) At rest (d) Criterion
(vii) VOID
(a) Emptiness (b) Lea (c) Anger (d) Trick
(viii) ESSAY
(a) Direct (b) Compose (c) Attempt (d) Suppose
(b) Indicate the most nearly opposite in meaning to the word in capital letters:      (5)
(Do only
FIVE). Extra attempt of any Part of the question will not be considered.
(i) IGNOBLE
(a) Lowly (b) Vile (c) Good (d) Noble
(ii) MELANCHOLY
(a) Sorrowful (b) Happy (c) Forbidden (d) Brisk
(iii) OBLITERATE
(a) Preserve (b) Destroy (c) Ravage (d) Design
(iv) ALLY
(a) Alloy (b) Foe (c) Partner (d) Accessory
(v) VULGAR
(a) Coarse (b) Gross (c) Exquisite (d) Obscene
(vi) PRETEND
(a) Sham (b) Substantiate (c) Feign (d) Fabricate
(vii) LIBERTY
(a) Permission (b) Licence (c) Serfdom (d) Bound
(viii) CONSCIENTIOUS
(a) Uncorrupt (b) Honourable (c) Principled (d) Profligate
ANSWERS:
Q1: Word meanings:
Acrimonius - a) bitter
Calligraphy- b) handwriting
Demise d) death
Incendiary c) causing fire
Essay - c) Attempt

Q2: opposites:
Melancholy - b - happy
Obliterate - a - preserve
Ally - b - foe
Vulgar - c - exquisite
Pretend - d- substantiate

 PART-II

Q2: Precise

Of all the characteristics of ordinary human nature envy is the most unfortunate; not only does the envious person wish to inflict misfortune and do so whenever he can with impunity, but he is also himself rendered unhappy by envy. instead of deriving pleausre from what he has, he derives pain from what others have. if he can, he deprives others of their advantages, which to him is as desirable as as it would be to secure the same advantages himself. if this passion is allowed to run riot it becomes fatal to all excellence,and even the most useful exercise of exceptional skill. why should a medical man go to see his patients in a car when the labourer has to walk to his work? why should the scientifc investigator be allowed to spend his time in a warm room when others have to face the inclemency of the elements? why should a man who possesses some rare talent of great importance to the world be saved fromt he drudgery of his own housework? to such questions envy finds no answer. fortunately, however, there is in human nature a compensating passion, namely that of admiration. whosoever wishes to increase human happiness must wish to increase admiration and to diminish envy. what cure is there for envy? for the saint there is the cure of selflessness, though even in the case of saints envy of other saints is by no means impossible. but, leaving saints out of account, the only cure of envy in the case of ordinary men and women is happiness, and the difficulty is that envy is itself a terrible obstacle to happiness. but the envious man may say: 'what is the good of telling me that the cure of envy is happiness? i cannot find happiness while i continue to feel envy, and you tell me that i cannot cease to be envious until i find happiness.' but real life is never so logical as this. mereley to realize the cause of one's own envious feeling is to take a long step towards curing them.

Question 3: Comprehension

And still it moves. the words of Galileo, murmured when the tortures of the Inquisition had driven him to recant the Truth he knew, apply in a new way to our world today. sometimes, in the knowledge of all that has been discovered, all that has been done to make life on the planet happier and more worthy, we may be tempted to settle down to enjoy our heritage. that would, indeed, be the betrayal of our trust.

These men and women of the past have given everything---comfort, time, treasure, peace of mind and body, life itself---that we might live as we do. the challenege to each one of us is to carry on their work for the sake of future generations.

The adventurous human mind must not falter. still must we question the old truths and work for the new ones. still must we risk scorn, cynicism, neglect, loneliness, poverty, persecution, if need be. we must shut our ears to easy voice which tells us that human nature will never alter as an exucse for doing nothing to make life more worthy.

Thus will the course of the history of mankind go onward, and the world we know move into a new splendour for those who are yet to be.

Questions:
1) What made Galileo recant the Truth he knew?
2) What is the heritage being alluded to in the first paragraph?
3)what does the 'betrayal of our trust' imply
4) Why do we need to question the old truths and work for the new ones?
Explain the words or expressions as highlighted/underlined in the passage.

Question 4: Write a comprehensive note on any one of the following
1) When flatterrers get together, the devil goes to dinner.
2) The impossible is often the untried.
3) A Civil servant is a public servant
4)Internet---a blessing or a bane
5) Hope is the buoy of life.

Question 5: Use Only Five of the following in sentences which illustrate their meaning:

1) Make for
2) Yeoman's service
3) Discretion is the better part of valour.
4) Out of the wood
5) A casting vote
6) Look down upon
7) Iconoclast
8) A swan song

b) Five pairs of words in sentences:

1) Adverse, Averse
2) Maize, Maze
3) Medal, Meddle
4) Imperious, Imperial
5) Veracity, Voracity
6) Allusion, Illusion
7) Ordinance, Ordnance
8) willing, Wilful

Question 6:

a) Correct the following sentences

1) This house is built of brick and stone.
2) the climate of Pakistan is better than England?
3) He swore by God.
4) You ought to have regarded him your benefactor.
5) My friend is very ill, i hope he will soon die.
6) he is waiting for better and promising opportunity.
7) When I shall see her I will deliver her your gift.
8) Many a sleepless nights she spent.

b) Change the narration from Indirect to Direct or Direct to Indirect

1) On Monday he said, "My son is coming today."
2) they wanted to know where he was going the following week.
3) he said, "Did she go yesterday?"
4) 'By God', he said, "I do not know her nickname."
5) he says that we are to meet him at the station.
6) He said, "I don't know the way. ask the old man sitting on the gate."
7) My father prayed that i would recover from my illness
8) He said, "How will you manage it?" 

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Responsibilities of an Headmaster / Headmistress

What are the Duties and Functions of an ideal Headmaster? 

As a functionary, hundreds and thousands of eyes watch him, judge him, and measure him and eager to follow his noble examples. Unless he has a perceiving eye, and understanding heart and an all- adjusting mental poise, he is bound to falter and fumble in his duties. The Headmaster should be firm in his dealings, resolute in his conviction and decisions, relentless in his execution.

A Headmaster has to perform multifarious duties. They can be categorized conveniently into the following:

(a) Teaching:

Headmaster of a school is a teacher first and last. Teaching is his fundamental duty. Headmasters remain so much absorbed in other duties that they never enter classes. But they should take at least two periods a day on specialized subjects. They should deliver or guide demonstration classes.

Despite some frustration of administration and demands on his time improvement of instruction is one of the most important responsibilities and duties of Headmaster. The headmastership and leadership are synonymous in education. He is the key person charged with responsibilities of improving instruction.

By actually teaching, the Headmaster comes to know the standard of pupils in different classes and the standard of teaching in the school. He directly comes in contact and understands difficulties of students and teachers.

No one expects Headmaster to be an expert in all instructional areas. He may master at least one or two subjects with manageable standard in other subjects. In spite of the fact, that Headmasters are over-burdened with a number of other duties; they should be first rate teachers being conversant with content and the latest methods of teaching.

(b) Planning:

Unless the Headmaster plans for the school, there will be confusion all round. For making proper planning, help of pupils, teachers, and parents should be taken. Most of the planning will be there in course of discussions of school problems in the staff meetings and students councils.

Jacobson paints a good picture, "In extreme cases there are teachers without students, classes without teachers, class-sections with enrolment twice the capacity of the room, the teachers are handicapped, because of shortage of suppliers, lack of books and equipments, improperly classified students". This state of affairs is dues to inadequate planning in schools.

(c) Organization & Administration:

The next important task of Headmaster is organization. In the organization of school plant the headmaster should procure adequate furniture and equipment for the school. He should make petty repairs, distribute the furniture, look to the buildings, organize laboratories, the workshop and the library and take care of the sanitation and entire material aspect of school plant.

The Headmaster looks to the instructional work of the school including construction of curriculum, preparation and distribution at syllabi, work distribution among the staff, allotment of co-curricular duties, construction of the time schedule and the school calendar.

(d) Supervision:

Supervision and administration are the two combined functions which are mostly blended in one. Administration means performance of certain routine duties in connection with finance, discipline, correspondence etc. By supervision it is meant the overseeing the work done by the teaching staff. Supervision is improving the total teaching learning situation. This situation is no more "detection or fault finding." A Headmaster should follow the following principles of supervision.

1. Its purpose is to help, encourage and guide rather than criticize.

2. It should be done in a spirit of cooperation.

3. It should be done regularly and effectively.

4. Partiality and prejudice should find no place in it.

5. The criteria of supervision should be known to teachers.

Supervision of instructional work is the most important function of the Headmaster. Classroom is the heart of teaching situation. It is the centre of instruction. It is the duty of headmaster to upgrade the quality of education through creative, cooperative and constructive supervision. It is not a matter of rushing into a classroom in session to make correction or an adjustment, as an auto mechanic adjusts a faulty motor. A motor is a thing within itself, but a classroom is a combination of human beings. Class visits form an essential part of the duties of the Headmaster. But that alone gives him no right either to snub or criticize a teacher in the presence of the class.

If the Headmaster feels a particular teacher needs correction, he should send for the teacher for post-visit conference. So, Headmaster's role is to play an excellent guide and the post- visit conference should see the teacher, a better person, wiser and saner. When Headmaster finds any defect with the teacher, he will discuss after the period is over in the Headmaster's office and not in front of the class.

Some specific Duties of Headmaster

1. School Supplies:

This involves planning. Estimates are to be prepared regarding the quantity of purchases to be made. Specification of each item is to be laid down and quotations have to be invited and approved by the Headmaster. Goods ordered should be inspected and checked on arrival. Headmaster will appoint a selection committee for purchase and maintenance of equipments.

2. School Campus:

School plant should provide adequate educational services. Best use of all the rooms, laboratories, workshops and the farm is made. In case of over-crowding students may attend laboratories in groups. School may be used for its specific uses. All school buildings should be guarded against building hazards. The perfect up-keep of the school campus is the lookout of the Headmaster.

3. Co-Curricular Activities:

Over-all management of school co-curricular activities is the Headmaster's responsibility. Various activities may of course, be distributed amongst the staff members in accordance with their previous background, interest and aptitude. Adequate budget allotment should be made for these activities. All wastage and unnecessary expenditure should be checked.

4. Office:

The modern conception of the Headmaster's office is that, it is a service centre. Communication with higher authorities, the parents, the public, the teacher and the students is made by the Headmaster.

Among the specific duty on the Headmaster in respect of efficient working of school office, the following are noteworthy:

(i) The office must be located at a suitable place. It must be adequately spaced and proper up-keep ensured.

(ii) Office work must be distributed adequately among members of the office staff. Headmaster must supervise their work, check irregularities, check inefficiency and ensure regular and prompt work.

(iii) Headmaster must decide time to be devoted for office work.

(iv) Headmaster must make note of his office duties.

(v) Duties of Headmaster prescribed by Education Department and Managing Committee should be strictly followed.

(vi) The Headmaster should strictly obey the rules and regulations by the University or school Board, to which the school is affiliated.

(vii) Routine duties of the Headmaster should be admission, checking class registers, cash book, acquaintance roll, attendance registers accounts of various fees and fines.

All these general duties and specific responsibilities of the Headmaster will go to make better schools.

 

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Central Superior Services (CSS) Pakistan Competitive Examination Past Papers GENERAL KNOWLEDGE, Everyday Science

GENERAL KNOWLEDGE, PAPER-I
(EVERYDAY SCIENCE) 

Read Online Past Examination Papers of Central Superior Services (CSS) Pakistan Competitive Examination

CSS Past Papers Everyday Science 2015

PART – II (Subjective)

Q.2. (a)Iibn-e Batoota’s famous book Rihalah is an important source of history and
geography. Justify it. (5)
(b)Albarouni is recognized more as natural scientist rather theorist. Comment. (5)(10)
Q.3. (a)How solar eclipse and lunar eclipse are caused? (5)(b)Discuss the function of kidneys in human body. (5)(10)
Q.4. (a)Describe briefly the principle working of two of the followings
(i)Television (ii)Microwave oven (iii)RADAR (5)
(b)What is current status and future perspective of BIOTECHNOLGY in Pakistan? (5)(10)
Q.5. (a)What do mean by night vision technology? (5)(b)How Energy crises can be minimized in Pakistan. (5)(10)
Q.6. (a)Write short note on Seismography. (5)(b)Differentiate between
(i)Cell and battery (ii)Smog and Smoke (5)(10)
Q.7. (a)What do you understand by Pollen Allergy. (5)(b)Write down short note on any two of the following.
(i)Antibiotics (ii)Hormones (iii)Green House effect? (5)(10)
Q.8. (a)Write down note on Forensic Science and Criminology. (5)(b)What are fertilizers? What do you understand by NPK Fertilizers? (5)(10)
Q.9. (a)What is Anemia? What are its symptoms and causes? (5)(b)Write short note on space shuttle. (5)(10)

CSS Past Papers Everyday Science 2014

PART – II (Subjective)

Q. No. 2. Discuss the contribution of Muslim scientists in the development of Astronomy,Algebra and Trigonometry.
Q. No. 3. Give brief answers to the following questions: (2 each)(a)Why do we bring our hands close to our mouth while shouting across to someone far away?
(b)Why do we lean forward while climbing a hill?
(c)Why does a swimming pool appear less deep than it actually is?
(d)Why cannot petrol fire be extinguished by water?
(e)Why do Australians celebrate their Christmas during summer?
Q. No. 4. Differentiate between: (2 each)(a)Hypoglycemia and Hyperglycemia
(b)Renewable and Non-renewable energy resources
(c)Lava and Magma (d)Mist and Fog (e)Lunar Eclipse and Solar Eclipse
Q. No. 5. Briefly explain the working principle of the following: (5 each)(a)Radar (b)Microwave Oven
Q. No. 6. Give brief explanations for following phenomena: (2 each)(a)While watching a cricket match we see the ball struck a moment before we
hear the sound of the bat hitting the ball.
(b)A ship though made largely of steel, which is heavier than water, floats in
water.
(c)The colour of the same cloth when seen in electric light appears different from
the colour when seen in day light.
(d)Glass when heated cracks while metal does not.
(e)Although each eye perceives a separate image, we do not see everything
double.
Q. No. 7. Write short NOTES on the following: (5 each)(a)Environmental effects of Fertilizer use. (b)Global Warming.
Q. No. 8. Differentiate between: (2 each)(a)Smog and Smoke (b)Radiotherapy and Chemotherapy
(c)Diastolic and Systolic blood pressure (d)Infection and Allergy(e)Conductors and Insulators
Q. No. 9. Briefly explain the function of following in human body: (2each)
(a)Kidneys (b)Lymphatic system(c)Thyroid gland (d)Pituitary gland

CSS Past Papers Everyday Science 2013

PART – I (MCQs)
(COMPULSORY)

Q.1. Select the best option/answer and fill in the appropriate Box on the Answer Sheet:   (50)

(1) Persons with following blood group are considered to be universal recipient.
 (a)  A+   (b)  B+   (c)  AB+ (d)  O+  (e)  None of these
(2) Study of life in outer space is known as:
 (a)  Endobiology (b)  Exobiology (c)  Enterobiology (d)  Neobiology (e)  Micro biology
(3) The name of the common mineral salt present in sweat is:
 (a)  Calcium Oxalate (b)  Potassium Sulphate (c) Sodium Chloride (d)  Iron Sulphide
 (e)  None of these
(4) Sensitive layer of the eye is:
 (a)  Choroids  (b)  Sclerotic  (c)  Retina (d)  Cornea (e)  None of these
(5) Laughing gas has chemical composition of following two elements:
 (a)  Nitrogen + Hydrogen (b)  Nitrogen + Carbon (c)  Nitrogen + Oxygen
 (d)  Oxygen + Carbon  (e)  None of these
(6) Dr. Abdus Salam of Pakistan was one of the contributors to the unification of:
 (a)  Electromagnetic force and gravitational force (b)  Electromagnetic force and weak nuclear force
 (c)  Gravitational force and weak nuclear force (d)  Weak nuclear force and strong nuclear force
 (e)  None of these
(7) Which triplet in DNA codes for valine:
 (a)  CTT (b)  AGU (c)  CAT (d)  AAT (e)  None of these
(8) What is the chance of a diabetic baby born to parents both heterozygous normal?
 (a)  Zero (b)  1/4  (c)  1/2  (d)  3/4   (e)  None of these
(9) Which of the following is not a part of Darwinism:
 (a)  Over production  (b)  Natural selection (c)  Inheritance for acquired characters
 (d)  Competition for survival (e)  None of these
(10) Role of biotechnology in the production of food is based on:
 (a)  Decomposition (b)  Respiration    (c)  Digestion    (d)  Fermentation  (e)  None of these
(11) Which form of drug abuse involves most risk of infection with the HIV (AIDS) virus:
 (a)  Cigarette smoking   (b)  Using alcohol  (c)  Injection of heroine
 (d)  Taking too much aspirin  (e)  None of these
(12) Founder of modern astronomy was:
 (a)  Archimedes  (b)  William Gilbert  (c)  Nicolas Copernicus
 (d)  Michel Faraday (e)  None of these
(13) The instrument which measures very high temperature is:
 (a)  Manometer (b)  Thermostat (c)  Chronometer (d)  Pyrometer (e)  None of these

(14) The science which deals with study of manners and customs of peoples is:
 (a)  Ethnology  (b)  Morphology (c)  Ethics (d)  Genetics (e)  None of these
(15) Chemicals used to kill rats and mice are:
 (a)  Insecticides    (b)  Rodenticides    (c)  Fungicides   (d)  Herbicides (e)  None of these
(16) Dry ice is:
 (a)  Methane hydrate  (b)  Liquid Nitrogen  (c)  Solid Carbondioxide
 (d)  Frozen water  (e)  None of these
(17) Chemical name of vinegar is:
 (a)  Sodium Nitrate  (b)  Dilute acetic acid  (c)  Chloride of lime
 (d)  Calcium   (e)  None of these
(18) Deficiency of following vitamin decreases hemoglobin production:
 (a)  Biotin  (b)  Thiamine  (c)  Niacin (d)  Pyridoxine (e)  None of these
(19) Hygrometer is used for measuring the:
 (a)  Speed of sound   (b)  Density of milk  (c)  Humidity of air
 (d)  Specific gravity of liquids  (e)  None of these
(20) Bronze is an alloy of:
 (a)  Copper and Zinc  (b)  Tin and Zinc  (c)  Copper and Tin
 (d)  Iron and Zinc  (e)  None of these
(21) Which of the following is most elastic?
 (a)  Steel  (b)  Rubber  (c)  Glass (d)  Sponge (e)  None of these
(22) Orbital period of the planet Mercury around the sun is:
 (a)  88 days  (b)  365 days  (c)  2 years (d)  98 days (e)  None of these
(23) The most splendid and the most magnificent constellation in the sky is:
 (a)  Orion (b)  Columba  (c)  Canis Major (d)  Taurus (e)  None of these
(24) “Black holes” refer to:
 (a)  Holes occurring in heavenly bodies  (b)  Bright spots on the sun
 (c)  Collapsing objects of high density  (d)  Collapsing objects of low density
 (e)  None of these
(25) Eugenics is the study of:
 (a)  Altering human beings by changing their genetic components
 (b)  People of European origin  (c)  Different races of mankind
 (d)  Genetics of plants   (e)  Eunuchs
(26) The position of earth in its orbit, when it is at its greatest distance from the sun causing northern
summer is called:
 (a)  Aphelion  (b)  Perihelion  (c)  Perigee (d)  Apogee (e)  None of these
(27) Diamond is a very expensive ornament. It is composed of a single element.
 (a)  Carbon  (b)  Gold  (c)  Silver (d)  Platinum (e)  None of these
(28) Which of the following layers makes radio transmission possible?
 (a)  Troposphere (b)  Ionosphere (c)  Mesosphere (d)  Stratosphere (e)  None of these
(29) Which of the following explains the reason why there is no total eclipse of the sun?
 (a)  Size of the earth in relation to that of moon  (b)  Orbit of moon around earth
 (c)  Direction of rotation of earth around sun  (d)  Area of the sun covered by the moon
 (e)  None of these
(30) Television signals are converted into light signals by:
 (a)  Optical fibre      (b)  Transistor   (c)  Decoder     (d)  Photo diode  (e)  None of these
(31) Where do most of Asteroids lie?
 (a)  In asteroid belt between the orbits of Mars and Jupiter.
 (b)  In asteroid belt between the orbits of Mars and Venus.
 (c)  In asteroid belt between the orbits of Jupiter and Venus.
 (d)  Everywhere in the sky.   (e)  None of the these
(32) The number of spark plugs needed in a diesel engine is:
 (a)  2  (b)  3  (c)  0  (d)  4  (e)  None of these
(33) The half life of a radioactive element is 8-days. How long will it take to reduce it from 10mg to 5mg?
 (a)  4 days (b)  12 days  (c)  16 days (d)  8 days  (e)  None of these
(34) The term ‘Blue Shift’ is used to indicate.
 (a)  Doppler effect in which an object appears bluer when it is moving towards the observer or
observer is moving towards the object.
 (b)  Turning a star from white to blue.  (c)  In future sun would become blue.
 (d)  Black hole was blue at its start.   (e)  None of these
(35) Kilowatt-hour is a unit of:
 (a)  Power (b)  Electric current (c)  Energy (d)  Time (e)  None of these
(36) Fuel used in Fast Breeder Reactor is:
 (a)  Uranium Oxide  (b)  Uranium Plutonium carbide (c)  Uranium Plutonium Oxide
 (d)  Uranium thorium Oxide (e)  None of these
(37) Monsoon is caused by:
 (a)  Seasonal reversal of winds. (b)  Revolution of earth.  (c)  Movement of the clouds.
 (d)  Rise in temperature.  (e)  Rain forests
(38) Which of the following atmospheric layers helps in radio communication?
 (a)  Exosphere (b)  Ionosphere (c)  Troposphere (d)  Stratosphere  (e)  Ozone layer
(39) A moderator is used in nuclear reactor in order to:
 (a)  Accelerate the neutrons   (b)  Slow down the speed of the neutrons
 (c)  Increase the number of electrons  (d)  Decrease the number of electrons
 (e)  None of these
(40) Sedimentary rocks are:
 (a)  Porous (b)  Hard  (c)  Rough  (d)  Brittle (e)  Volcanic
(41) Which one of the following is a non-metallic mineral?
 (a)  Manganese (b)  Magnesium (c)  Gypsum (d)  Bauxite (e)  None of these
(42) Ozone layer prevents the following radiation from entering the atmosphere:
 (a)  Infra-red   (b)  Ultraviolet (c)  X-rays (d)  Gamma rays (e)  None of these
(43) The phenomenon of Aurora Borealis, the display of red and green lights in northern hemisphere is due to radiations from:
 (a)  Ionosphere    (b)  Troposphere    (c)  Mesosphere     (d)  Stratosphere    (e)  None of these
(44) Yeast is used in making bread because it produces:
 (a)  Carbon dioxide (b)  Sugar (c)  Bacteria  (d)  Oxygen (e)  None of these
(45) Oasis is associated with:
 (a)  Glaciers (b)  Desert (c)  Islands  (d)  Volcanoes  (e)  Fertile land
(46) Quartz crystal in quartz watches works on the principle called:
 (a)  Photoelectric effect  (b)  Stark effect  (c)  Thermionic effect
 (d)  Piezo-electric effect  (e)  None of these
(47) The Fruits without seed, like banana, are called:
 (a)  seedless fruits  (b)  parthenogenesis fruits   (c)  parthenocarpic fruits (d) placental fruits
 (e)  Organic fruits
(48) Animal which captures and readily kills living animals for its food is called:
 (a)  Parasite  (b)  Scavenger  (c)  Predator      (d)  Mammal (e)  None of these
(49) In a railway track, two rails are joined end to end with a gap in between them because:
 (a)  Steel can be saved.  
 (b)  Accidents due to contraction in winter can be avoided.
 (c)  Air gaps are necessary for bearing the weight of running train.
 (d)  Accidents due to expansion in summer can be avoided.
 (e)  All of these
(50) Name the famous book of Ibn-Sina in which he discussed human physiology and medicine:
 (a)  Al-Qanoon     (b)  Al-Masudi (c)  New Renaissance (d)  Tadhkira (e)  None of these

PART – II (Subjective)

Q.2. Write short note on the following by giving their exact life span and contributions to the
 field of science (Accurate facts will be appreciated) (5 x 2)
 (a) Umer Al Khayam (b) Zakariya Al Razi
Q.3. Differentiate between ANY FIVE of the following pairs. (2 x 5)
 (a) Umbra and Penumbra (b) Heavy water and hard water (c) Smog and Smoke
 (d) Myopia and Hypropia (e) Lava and Magma (f) Periscope and perimeter
 (g) X-rays and Gamma rays
Q.4. Sun is a glorious star in our sky. Write down its characteristics with reference to the following data: 
 (a) Distance from earth (b) Mean distance from centre of galaxy
 (c) Velocity around centre of galaxy (d) Revolution period around centre of galaxy
 (e) Equatorial diameter (f) Rotation period at the equator
 (g) Core temperature (h) Solar wind
 (i) The lovely Diamond Ring effect  (i) Future of sun
 Q.5. Write briefly (not more than three to four sentences) about ANY FIVE of the following. (2 x 5)
 (a) Allotropy  (b) Nebula (c) Enrichment of Uranium
 (d) Aqua Regia (e) Greenhouse effect (f) Igneous rocks
 Q.6. (a) Define GENETIC ENGINEERING. In how many ways Genetic Engineering can be
  applied in different fields of life? Does it benefit society? Discuss.   (1+3+2)
 (b) What do the following scientific abbreviations stand for?   (1/2 each)
  (i)  SONAR (ii)   CNS (iii)   PTFE (iv)  LDL (v)  SARS
  (vi) GUT (vii) BASIC (viii) BTU  Q.7. (a) What are MINERALS? Discuss ANY TWO physical properties thereof. Also mention
  the names of four precious minerals of high commercial value.   
 (b) Define the following:        (1 each)
  (i) Amphibion  (ii) Synchronous satellite (iii) Big Dipper
  (iv) Fermentation  (v) Millennium Bug
 Q.8. (a) Define RECEPTORS in man. Name different receptor organs in human body.
  Also discuss ANY TWO of them briefly.      
 (b) Give scientific reasons of the following.      (1 each)
  (i) The dogs pant, the birds open their mouth and the elephants move rapidly their ears.
  (ii) The manholes covers are generally round.
(iii) A geostationary satellite appears standstill to a viewer on the equator of earth.
(iv) We never see birds urinating.
(v) Pasteurized milk has more nourishment than the ordinary boiled milk.
Q.9. (a) Highlight the similarities and differences between animals and plants.   (3+3)
 (b) Write short note on ANY TWO of the following.     (2 each)
  (i) Teleprinter   (ii) Dengue Virus  (iii) Vacuum Cleaner

CSS Past Papers Everyday Science 2012

PART – II (Subjective)

Q. 2. Write briefly about two or more major achievements of each of the following two
famous Muslim scientists:
(a) Abu Abdullah Mohammad Bin Musa Al Khwarizmi
(b) Abu Ali Al Hassan ibn Al Hassan Al Haytham

Q. 3. (a) List four or more physical characteristics of the Earth.
(b)  Briefly explain how Seasons and Ocean Tides are produced on the Earth?

Q. 4. (a) Very briefly explain the difference between Earthquakes, Volcanic
 eruptions, Floods and Tsunamis.
(b)  Briefly explain the difference between Sedimentary and Metamorphic rocks.

Q. 5. (a) Very briefly explain the difference between an Insulator, a Conductor, a
 Semiconductor and a Superconductor.
(b) Briefly explain the difference between a Laser and a Photovoltaic Cell.

Q. 6. (a) Briefly explain the difference between an Antibiotic, an Antiviral Drug, a
 Pesticide and a Vaccine.
(b)  List any two of the three things that the MMR vaccine protects against. List
 any two other vaccines given to children.

Q. 7. (a) Briefly explain how Photosynthesis works.
(b) Briefly explain the Nitrogen Cycle in nature.

Q. 8. (a) Differentiate between the following:
 Deoxyribonucleic Acids (DNA)
 Messenger Ribonucleic Acids (mRNA)
 Proteins
(b) Explain how DNA, mRNA and Proteins are interrelated to each other.

Q. 9. (a) Explain what is meant by a balanced diet?
(b) Give the major function of the following micronutrients:
 Vitamin A
 Vitamin C
 Iron
 Calcium
 Iodine

CSS Past Papers Everyday Science 2011

(PART-I MCQs) (COMPULSORY)
Q.1. Select the best option/answer and fill in the appropriate box on the answer sheet.    (1 x 50 = 50)
(1) The planet of the solar system which has maximum number of Moon is:
(a) Jupiter     (b) Venus    (c) Saturn       (d)     Uranus
(e) None of these.
(2) Sun is a:
(a) Planet     (b) Comet   (c) Satellite      (d)     Aurora
(e) None of these.
(3) The age of the solar system is:
(a) 4.5 billion years    (b) 5.5 billion years 
(c) 6.5 billion years      (d) 7.5 billion years (e) None of these.
(4) A unit of length equal to the average distance between the Earth and Sun is called:
(a) Light year (b) Astronomical unit   (c) Parsec    (d) Parallax
(e) None of these.
(5) An eclipse of the Sun occurs when:
(a) The Moon is between the Sun and the Earth (b) The Sun is between the Earth and the Moon
(c) The Earth is between the Sun and the Moon (d) The Earth casts its shadow on the Moon
(e) None of these.
(6) The ozone layer protects the Earth from rays sent down by the Sun:
(a)    Ultraviolet rays  (b) Infrared rays (c) Gamma rays
(d) Radioactive rays  (e) None of these.
(7) The ozone layer is present about 30 miles (50 Km) in atmosphere above the Earth. The stratum (layer)
of atmosphere in which ozone layer lies is called as:
(a)    Exosphere  (b)  Mesosphere (c) Stratosphere
(d) Ionosphere  (e) Troposphere
(8) Which rocks are formed by the alteration of pre-existing rocks by great heat or pressure?
(a) Igneous rocks (b)  Sedimentary rocks (c) Metamorphic rocks
(d) Acid rocks (e) Basic rocks.
(9) The most abundant natural Iron Oxides are:
(a)    Magnetite and Pyrite   (b)   Magnetite and Bauxite (c) Hematite and Pyrite
(d) Hematite and Magnetite  (e) Hematite and Bauxite
(10) The two most abundant elements in sea water are:
(a)    Sodium and Potassium (b)   Sodium and Calcium (c) Sodium and Chlorine
(d) Chlorine and Iodine (e) Magnesium and Sulphur
(11) An electric current can produce:
(a)    Chemical effect  (b)  Magnetic effect (c)  Heating effect
(d) All of these three (e) None of these.
(12) The unit of home electricity energy consumption is:
(a)    Watt hour (b)   Kilowatt hour    (c) Joule hour 
(d) Kilojoule hour  (e) None of these.
(13) The magnet always points in the same direction, if allowed to move freely i.e. towards North and
South poles, because of:
(a)    Gravitational field  (b)   A lot of metal deposits on North and South Poles
(c)  Due to attraction of North Pole and repulsion of Western Pole 
(d) Earth is a huge magnet (e) None of these.
(14) When sound is reflected from floor, ceiling or a wall, it mixes with the original sound and changes its
complexion, it is called as:
(a)    Sound  (b)   Echo (c)  Reverberation  (d) Noise  (e) None of these.
(15) The speed of sound in dry air at 20 °C is about:
(a)    130 meters per second  (b)   230 meters per second (c) 330 meters per second
(d) 430 meters per second (e) None of these.
(16) The speed of light in vacuum is about:
(a)   300 Million meters per second (b) 300 Million meters per hour
(c) 300 Million kilometres per second  (d) 300 Million kilometres per hour (e) None of these.
(17) The time, light takes from the Sun to reach Earth is:
(a)    8 minutes (b)   25 minutes     (c)    45 minutes      (d) 60 minutes     (e) None of these.
(18) Light from the Sun travels a distance before it reaches the Earth :
(a)    50 million Km (b)   100 million Km (c)  150 million Km
(d) 200 million Km (e) None of these.
(19) The most suitable thermometer for measuring the boiling point of water is:
(a)    Mercury thermometer  (b)   Alcohol thermometer (c)  Bimetallic thermometer
(d) Liquid crystal thermometer (e) None of these.
(20) The density of water is greatest at:
(a)    -32 °C (b)   0 °C (c)  4 °C (d) 100 °C (e) None of these.
(21) Which one of the following statements is true?
(a)    Gases do not conduct heat (b)        The best conductors are non-metals
(c)    Conduction currents occur only in liquids (d) A vacuum can not conduct heat
(e)    None of the statements is true.
(22) Ice can be changed to water by:
(a)    Adding more water molecules (b)   Changing the motion of the water molecules
(c)    Rearranging the atoms in water molecules (d) Destroying the atoms in water molecules
(e)    None of these.
(23) The building blocks of elements are called:
(a)    Atoms (b) Molecules (c) Compounds (d) Isotopes (e) None of these.
(24) Boiling of an egg is a change which is:
(a)    Physical (b) Chemical (c) Physiological  (d) Morphological
(e) None of these.
(25) The temperature of liquid Nitrogen is:
(a)    -32 °C (b)   -80 °C (c)  -100 °C (d) -196 °C (e) None of these.
(26) Which one of the following is an alkali?
(a)    Water (b) Vinegar (c) Lemon juice (d) Slaked lime
(e) None of these.
(27) If an alkali is slowly added to an acidic solution, the pH of the acidic solution will:
(a)    Increase (b) Decrease (c) Increase to 7 and then decrease
(d) Decrease to 7 and then increase (e) Will remain same.
(28) The usual raw material for ceramics, generally found beneath the top soil is?
(a)    Sand (b) Silt (c) Clay  (d) Plaster of Paris (e) Melamine.
(29) Polyamides are synthetic polymers commonly known as:
(a)    Synthetic rubber (b) Nylon (c) Cellulose (d) Protein    (e) None of these.
(30) Telephone was invented in 1876 in America by:
(a)    Marconi (b) Galileo (c) John Beard  (d) Edison    (e) Graham Bell.
(31) Information can be sent over long distances in the form of:
(a)    Electrical signals through wires (b) Light signals through optical fibres
(c) Radio waves through air   (d) Any combination of these three (e) None of these.
(32) Information can be stored in:
(a)    Audio and video cassettes (b) Floppy and compact discs (c) Hard disks
(d) Laser and optical disks (e) All of these four.
(33) Computers can:
(a)    Add and subtract information only (b) Add, subtract and sort information only
(c) Add, subtract, sort and classify information (d) Add and subtract but cannot sort information
(e) Add, subtract and sort but cannot classify information.
(34) IBM stands for:
(a)    International Business Machines (b) International Big Machines
(c) Interrelated Business Machines (d) Interrelated Big Machines (e) None of these.
(35) Chemicals used to kill weeds are called as:
(a)    Insecticides (b) Fungicides (c) Herbicides
(d) Fumigants (e) None of these.
(36) The cytoplasm consists of several types of structures, which are called:
(a)    Protoplasm (b) Nucleus (c) Cytochromes
(d) Organelles (e) None of these.
(37) The structure of DNA was elaborated by Watson and Crick in:
(a)    1909 (b) 1923 (c) 1945 (d) 1953
(e) None of these.
(38) In a DNA molecule, the rule for base pairing is:
(a)    Adenine always bound with thymine and cytosine with guanine
(b) Adenine always bound with cytosine and thymine with guanine
(c) Adenine always bound with guanine and cytosine with thymine
(d) Adenine always bound with uracil and cytosine with guanine
(e) None of these.
(39) Man belongs to the family:
(a)    Felidae    (b) Hominidae (c) Mammalia (d) Primataceae (e) None of these.
(40) Deficiency of vitamin C in the human body causes a deficiency disease called:
(a)    Beriberi   (b) Night blindness (c) Rickets (d) Scurvy (e) None of these.
(41) To measure the specific gravity of milk, the instrument used is:
(a)    Hygrometer (b) Barometer (c) Lactometer  (d) Hydrometer (e) None of these.
(42) One of the fundamental characteristics of living organisms is:
(a)    Photosynthesis   (b) Digestion (c) Excretion   (d)   Metabolism (e) None of these.
(43) Plants growing on other plants are called as:
(a)    Saprophytes    (b) Parasites (c) Epiphytes   (d) Pathogens (e) None of these.
(44) As per eating habit, squirrels are:
(a)    Frugivorous   (b)   Herbivorous    (c) Carnivorous   (d) Omnivorous
(e) Insectivorous.
(45) Water loss from leaves through stomata is called as:
(a)    Evaporation   (b) Transpiration (c) Evapo-transpiration   (d) Respiration
(e) None of these.
(46) The study of how plants and animals interact with one another and with the non-living environment is
called as:
(a)    Ecosystem   (b)   Sociology (c) Ecology   (d) Habitat (e) None of these.
(47) The number of bones in human body is:
(a)    200    (b) 202 (c) 204  (d) 206 (e) None of these.
(48) Nervous system in human body consists of:
(a)    Brain and spinal cord    (b) Brain and nerves (c) Spinal cord and nerves
(d) Brain, spinal cord and nerves (e) None of these.
(49) In human eye, the light sensitive layer made of specialized nerve cells, the rods and cones is called as:
(a)    The pupil   (b) The cornea (c) The sclera    (d) The iris (e) The retina.
(50) Erythrocytes are also called as:
(a)    Red blood cells (b) White blood cells   (c) Platelets  
(d) Plasma   (e) None of these.

PART – II (Subjective)

Q.2. Write short note on the following Muslim scientists by giving their exact life span and contribution to the field of science:(5x 2 = 10)
(a)Jabar-bin-Hayan (b) Bu Ali Sina
Q.3. Differentiate between any FIVE of the following pairs:- (5 x 2 = 10)
(a) Typhoons and Tornadoes (b)   Microscope and Telescope   (c) Ultrasonics and Infrasonics
(d) Hard water and Heavy water (e)   Isotopes and Isomers       (f) Antibodies and Antibiotics
(g) Antigen and Vaccine
Q.4. (a) What is a galaxy? The Earth belongs to which galaxy?         (1+1 = 2)
(b) Briefly describe what is big bang theory.        (4)
(c) Do you think that Pluto is still ninth planet of our solar system? If yes, how and if not why?  (1+3)
Q.5. (a) Basically how many forms of energy are there? Also name these.         (1+1 = 2)
(b) Enlist different types of energy.        (4)
(c) Why are scientists trying to find alternate energy sources?        (2)
(d) What is a renewable energy source? Quote three examples of renewable energy sources.          (2)
Q.6. Is plastic a natural or an artificial polymer? Describe various types of plastics and their uses.      (10)
Q.7. (a) What do the following abbreviations stand for:
(i) LAN (ii) HTTP (iii) HTML (iv) PDF (v) URL       (1 x 5 = 5)
(b) Differentiate between natural and artificial satellites. For what purpose artificial satellites are
used?     (5)
Q.8. (a) What is the main function of:       (1 x 5 = 5)
(i) Ribosome (ii) Mitochondria (iii) Lysosomes (iv) Chloroplasts (v) Golgi apparatus
(b) Give habitats of following animals:       (1 x 5 = 5)
(i) Rattle snake (ii) Ostrich (iii) Platypus (iv) Rhinoceros (v) Chimpanzee.
Q.9. Write short notes on the following:-      (2 x 5 = 10)
(a) Nucleic acids (b)  Fertilizers   (c)    Semiconductors   (d)  Microwave oven  (e) Internet

CSS Past Papers Everyday Science 2010

PART – I (MCQs)
(COMPULSORY)
Q.1. Select the best option/answer and fill in the appropriate Box on the Answer Sheet:   (50)
(1) Water is heated in a kettle. The inside water is heated by convection. A person sitting near the
fire receives heat by.
(a)  Conduction (b)  Convection (c)  Radiation (d)  Reflection (e)  None of these
(2) A time can come when we will be able to design a machine which can go on working for ever
without the expenditure of energy. Is it possible?
(a)  No (b)  Yes       (c)  In due course of time (d)  Very soon (e)  None of these
(3) The measurement of rainfall is made by an instrument known as:
(a)  Hygrometer (b)  Barometer (c)  Hydrometer (d)  Pedometer (e)  None of these
(4) Light year is a unit of:
(a)  Distance (b)  Time period (c)  Light intensity (d)  Time (e)  None of these
(5) Three elements needed for the healthy growth of plants are:
(a)  N, P, K (b)  N, C, P (c)  N, K, C (d)  N, S, P (e)  None of these
(6) Copper can be converted into gold by:
(a)  Heating (b)  Artificial Radioactivity (c)  Electroplating (d)  Chemical Reaction(e)  None of these
(7) In winter an iron pipe feels colder than a wooden window. This is because wood is:
(a)  Conductor (b)  Non-Conductor (c) Semi-Conductor (d) Not a solid while iron is a solid
(e)  None of these
(8) The echo(reflected sound) will be distinctly heard only at ordinary temperatures if the distance
of the reflecting surfaces from the source of sound is at least:
(a)  1120 ft (b)  120 ft (c)  56 ft (d)  100 ft (e)  None of these
(9) It is possible to recognize a person in the dark by simply hearing his unique voice. It is because
of the:
(a)  Pitch (b)  Frequency    (c)  Time period (d)  Quality (e)  None of these
(10) When a ray of sunlight enters a dark room, its straight path becomes visible because of dust
particles hanging in the air. It is because light is:
(a)  Visible (b)  Transparent    (c)  Invisible    (d)  Opaque  (e)  None of these
(11) A six feet tall lady wants to see her full image in a plane mirror. The minimum length of the
mirror will be:
(a)  6 feet (b)  12 feet (c)  4 feet (d)  3 feet (e)  None of these
(12) The principle used in radar is the same as that of Sonar. In radar we use radio waves; whereas
in Sonar we use:
(a)  Red Waves(b)  Infrared Waves (c)  Ultrasonic (d)  Supersonic (e)  None of these
(13) In a fission nuclear reaction, a heavy nucleus breaks up into smaller nuclei whereas in another
nuclear reaction two or more than two possibly nuclei are fused to form a heavy nucleus. This
nuclear reaction is called:
(a)  Chemical Reaction (b)  Nuclear Reaction (c)  Fission nuclear reaction
(d)  Fusion nuclear reaction (e)  None of these
(14) Parsec is a unit of:
(a)  Energy (b)  Time (c)  Power (d)  Distance (e)  None of these
(15) German Silver is an alloy of:
(a)  Zn + Ni    (b)  Cu + Zn   (c)  Cu + Ni  (d)  Cu + Sn (e)  None of these
(16) The Continent Antarctica lies at the:
(a)  North pole (b)  South pole (c)  Middle of the earth (d)  Equator (e)  None of these
(17) The temperature of the dead body is:
(a)  0oC (b)  37oC (c)  room temperature
(d)  temperature of the place where it is kept (e)  None of these
(18) Lactometer is a type of hydrometer which is used to measure the specific gravity of:
(a)  Honey (b)  Water (c)  Milk (d)  Olive Oil (e)  None of these
(19) Cusec is a unit of:
(a)  Area (b)  Time (c)  Distance (d)  Mass (e)  None of these
(20) The deepest place on earth is:
(a)  Trench (b)  Mariana Trench (c)  Mangrove (d)  Groove (e)  None of these
(21) Twinkling of stars is caused by the:
(a)  Reflection of light (b)  Polarization of light (c)  Refraction of light
(d)  Interference of light (e)  None of these
(22) Magnifying power of a simple microscope can be increased by:
(a) Increasing focal length of the lens (b)  Decreasing focal length of the lens
(c)  Lens of large aperture (d)  Lens of short aperture (e)  None of these
(23) Bronze medal is made up of metals:
(a)  Copper, Nickel (b)  Copper, Tin  (c)  Copper, Silver   (d)  Copper, Zinc (e)  None of these
(24) One of the countries through which equator passes is:
(a)  Kenya (b)  Pakistan (c)  Malaysia (d)  Malta (e)  None of these
(25) A very important practical application of properties of matter is hoeing or “godi” practiced by
the farmers. This property of matter is called:
(a)  Elasticity (b)  Stress (c)  Capillarity (d)  Strain (e)  None of these
(26) It is observed that the total pressure exerted by air on the man of average size is around 14.7 lb
wt. per square inch. But the man feels quite comfortable. It is because:
(a)  An equal and opposite pressure acts from inside    (b)  of the height of a man
(c)  of gravity (d)  Earth pulls the man upward    (e)  None of these
(27) A nuclear reactor is a device used to carry out controlled nuclear reaction whereas GM counter
is a device used to detect:
(a)  Current (b)  Voltage (c)  Nuclear Radiation (d)  Power (e)  None of these
(28) A body can escape the gravitational pull of the earth if it is thrown up with a velocity of:
(a)  25 miles/sec (b)  60 miles/sec (c)  7 miles/sec (d)  10 miles/sec (e)  None of these
(29) Night vision is possible with the help of:
(a)  Red Light (b)  Violet Light (c)  Infrared Light (d)  Ultraviolet Light (e)  None of these
(30) Myopia is a defect of human eye. It can be corrected by using a lens called:
(a)  Convex Lens      (b)  Concave Lens   (c)  Cylindrical Lens     (d)  Plano convex Lens
(e)  None of these
(31) Walnuts can be broken in the hand by squeezing two together but not one. It is because of:
(a)  Work done(b)  Power (c)  Energy (d)  Volume (e)  None of the these
(32) The instrument which is specially designed for recording earthquake wave is called
seismograph which measures earthquake waves on a:
(a)  Diatonic Scale (b)  Fahrenheit Scale(c)  Richter Scale (d)  Celsius Scale (e)  None of these
(33) The planet Mercury completes one rotation around the sun in:
(a)  88 days (b)  365 days (c)  98 days (d)  60 days (e)  None of these
(34) Fossils found in the lowest geological strata are generally the most:
(a)  Advanced (b)  Complex (c)  Primitive (d)  Specialized (e)  None of these
(35) Evolution can be described as:
(a)  A continuing process (b)  A catastrophic event in the past (c)  Static
(d)  The attaining of an ideal type (e)  None of these
(36) What is the only source of new alleles?
(a)  Crossing over (b)  Independent assortment (c)  Mutation
(d)  Fertilization (e)  None of these
(37) Polygenic characteristics are controlled by:
(a)  Dominant genes (b)  Recessive genes (c)  Multiple genes
(d)  Mutated genes (e)  None of these
(38) Which of the following, lists the four stages of food processing in order?
(a)  Ingestion, digestion, absorption, elimination
(b)  Digestion, ingestion, absorption, elimination
(c)  Ingestion, absorption, elimination, digestion
(d)  Absorption, digestion, ingestion, elimination
(e)  None of these
(39) In humans, most nutrient molecules are absorbed by the:
(a)  Stomach (b)  Liver (c)  Small intestine (d)  Large intestine (e)  None of these
(40) The energy needed to fuel essential body processes is called:
(a)  Essential nutrient level (b)  Basal Metabolism      (c)  Recommended daily allowance
(d)  Optimum energy intake (e)  None of these
(41) Which of the following is an organic molecule needed by the body in small amounts?
(a)  Protein (b)  Vitamin C (c)  Zinc (d)  Monosaccharide (e)  None of these
(42) Inhaled air passes through which of the following in the last?
(a)  Bronchiole   (b)  Larynx (c)  Pharynx (d)  Trachea (e)  None of these
(43) Which of the following is a form of sexual reproduction?
(a)  Hermaphroditism    (b)  Fission    (c)  Fragmentation     (d)  Budding (e)  None of these
(44) Cobalt is a material which is:
(a)  Strongly attracted by a magnet (b)  Not attracted by a magnet (c)  Not a magnet
(d)  Weakly attracted by a magnet (e)  None of these
(45) Laughing gas has chemical composition of the following two elements which are:
(a)  Nitrogen + Hydrogen (b)  Nitrogen + Carbon (c)  Nitrogen + Oxygen
(d)  Oxygen + Carbon (e)  None of these
(46) Hepatitis A is transmitted to different individuals by:
(a)  Water (b)  Sneezing (c)  Spit (d)  Foeces (e)  None of these
(47) The unit that coordinates different devices of the computer system is:
(a)  ALU  (b)  Register (c)  Control Unit (d) Logical instruction (e)  None of these
(48) The most abundant element present in the human body is:
(a)  Nitrogen (b)  Carbon (c)  Hydrogen      (d)  Oxygen (e)  None of these
(49) Cancer can be treated by:
(a)  Antibiotics and vaccines (b)  Radiotherapy and antibodies
(c)  Chemotherapy and radiotherapy (d)  Antibodies and chemotherapy
(e)  None of these
(50) Animals obtain carbohydrate mainly from:
(a)  Sucrose   (b)  Starch (c)  Glucose (d)  Glycogen (e)  None of these

PART – II (Subjective)

Q.2. Write short note on the following by giving their exact life span and contributions to the field
of science. (Accurate facts will be appreciated) (5 x 2)
(a) Al – Biruni (b) Ibn – al – Haitham
Q.3. What do you know about hereditary diseases? Comment how they are transferred from
parents to offsprings? (3 + 7)
Q.4. Write briefly about ANY FIVE of the following: (Answer in three or four sentences) (2 x 5)
(a) Plaster of Paris (b) Reflex Action(c) Pace Maker (d) Swine Flue
(e) Microwave Oven (f) The Internet(g) Voltage Stablizer
Q.5. (a) What is global warming? Is there  a sunny side to global warming? If yes, explain. (2 + 6)
(b) What makes the seasons happen? (2)
Q.6. In which region of the world, the following animals are found? Give two main characteristics
of each. (2 x 5)
(a)  Blind dolphin (b)  Kangaroo (c)  Panda(d)  Kiwi (e)  Penguin
Q.7. (a) In which organ these parts are present in animals or human body? (2 + 8)
(b) Describe the function of each briefly:
(i) Coronary artery (ii)   Sino-auricular Node (iii)   Aortic Valve (iv)   Auricle
Q.8. Differentiate between the following pairs: (2 x 5)
(a) Hydrometer and Hygrometer (b) Perimeter and Telemeter
(c) Isotopes and Isomers (d) Flying mammal and Bird (e) Vertebrates and Invertebrates
Q.9. (a) What are pesticides? Explain how these are dangerous to human beings? (2 + 4)
(b) What do the following scientific abbreviations stand far? (1/2 each)
(i) STP (ii) LORAN (iii) SONAR (iv) MAF (v) MeV (vi) MASER (vii) AWACS (viii) CCTV

CSS Past Papers Everyday Science 2009

PART – I (MCQs) (COMPULSORY)

 Q.1. Select the best option/answer and fill in the appropriate Box on the Answer Sheet:   (50)

(1) Persons with following blood group are considered to be universal recipient.
 (a)  A+   (b)  B+   (c)  AB+ (d)  O+  (e)  None of these
(2) Study of life in outer space is known as:
 (a)  Endobiology (b)  Exobiology (c)  Enterobiology (d)  Neobiology (e)  Micro biology
(3) The name of the common mineral salt present in sweat is:
 (a)  Calcium Oxalate (b)  Potassium Sulphate (c) Sodium Chloride (d)  Iron Sulphide
 (e)  None of these
(4) Sensitive layer of the eye is:
 (a)  Choroids  (b)  Sclerotic  (c)  Retina (d)  Cornea (e)  None of these
(5) Laughing gas has chemical composition of following two elements:
 (a)  Nitrogen + Hydrogen (b)  Nitrogen + Carbon (c)  Nitrogen + Oxygen
 (d)  Oxygen + Carbon  (e)  None of these
(6) Dr. Abdus Salam of Pakistan was one of the contributors to the unification of:
 (a)  Electromagnetic force and gravitational force (b)  Electromagnetic force and weak nuclear force
 (c)  Gravitational force and weak nuclear force (d)  Weak nuclear force and strong nuclear force
 (e)  None of these
(7) Which triplet in DNA codes for valine:
 (a)  CTT (b)  AGU (c)  CAT (d)  AAT (e)  None of these
(8) What is the chance of a diabetic baby born to parents both heterozygous normal?
 (a)  Zero (b)  1/4  (c)  1/2  (d)  3/4   (e)  None of these
(9) Which of the following is not a part of Darwinism:
 (a)  Over production  (b)  Natural selection (c)  Inheritance for acquired characters
 (d)  Competition for survival (e)  None of these
(10) Role of biotechnology in the production of food is based on:
 (a)  Decomposition (b)  Respiration    (c)  Digestion    (d)  Fermentation  (e)  None of these
(11) Which form of drug abuse involves most risk of infection with the HIV (AIDS) virus:
 (a)  Cigarette smoking   (b)  Using alcohol  (c)  Injection of heroine
 (d)  Taking too much aspirin  (e)  None of these
(12) Founder of modern astronomy was:
 (a)  Archimedes  (b)  William Gilbert  (c)  Nicolas Copernicus
 (d)  Michel Faraday (e)  None of these
(13) The instrument which measures very high temperature is:
 (a)  Manometer (b)  Thermostat (c)  Chronometer (d)  Pyrometer (e)  None of these

(14) The science which deals with study of manners and customs of peoples is:
 (a)  Ethnology  (b)  Morphology (c)  Ethics (d)  Genetics (e)  None of these
(15) Chemicals used to kill rats and mice are:
 (a)  Insecticides    (b)  Rodenticides    (c)  Fungicides   (d)  Herbicides (e)  None of these
(16) Dry ice is:
 (a)  Methane hydrate  (b)  Liquid Nitrogen  (c)  Solid Carbondioxide
 (d)  Frozen water  (e)  None of these
(17) Chemical name of vinegar is:
 (a)  Sodium Nitrate  (b)  Dilute acetic acid  (c)  Chloride of lime
 (d)  Calcium   (e)  None of these
(18) Deficiency of following vitamin decreases hemoglobin production:
 (a)  Biotin  (b)  Thiamine  (c)  Niacin (d)  Pyridoxine (e)  None of these
(19) Hygrometer is used for measuring the:
 (a)  Speed of sound   (b)  Density of milk  (c)  Humidity of air
 (d)  Specific gravity of liquids  (e)  None of these
(20) Bronze is an alloy of:
 (a)  Copper and Zinc  (b)  Tin and Zinc  (c)  Copper and Tin
 (d)  Iron and Zinc  (e)  None of these
(21) Which of the following is most elastic?
 (a)  Steel  (b)  Rubber  (c)  Glass (d)  Sponge (e)  None of these
(22) Orbital period of the planet Mercury around the sun is:
 (a)  88 days  (b)  365 days  (c)  2 years (d)  98 days (e)  None of these
(23) The most splendid and the most magnificent constellation in the sky is:
 (a)  Orion (b)  Columba  (c)  Canis Major (d)  Taurus (e)  None of these
(24) “Black holes” refer to:
 (a)  Holes occurring in heavenly bodies  (b)  Bright spots on the sun
 (c)  Collapsing objects of high density  (d)  Collapsing objects of low density
 (e)  None of these
(25) Eugenics is the study of:
 (a)  Altering human beings by changing their genetic components
 (b)  People of European origin  (c)  Different races of mankind
 (d)  Genetics of plants   (e)  Eunuchs
(26) The position of earth in its orbit, when it is at its greatest distance from the sun causing northern
summer is called:
 (a)  Aphelion  (b)  Perihelion  (c)  Perigee (d)  Apogee (e)  None of these
(27) Diamond is a very expensive ornament. It is composed of a single element.
 (a)  Carbon  (b)  Gold  (c)  Silver (d)  Platinum (e)  None of these
(28) Which of the following layers makes radio transmission possible?
 (a)  Troposphere (b)  Ionosphere (c)  Mesosphere (d)  Stratosphere (e)  None of these
(29) Which of the following explains the reason why there is no total eclipse of the sun?
 (a)  Size of the earth in relation to that of moon  (b)  Orbit of moon around earth
 (c)  Direction of rotation of earth around sun  (d)  Area of the sun covered by the moon
 (e)  None of these
(30) Television signals are converted into light signals by:
 (a)  Optical fibre      (b)  Transistor   (c)  Decoder     (d)  Photo diode  (e)  None of these
(31) Where do most of Asteroids lie?
 (a)  In asteroid belt between the orbits of Mars and Jupiter.
 (b)  In asteroid belt between the orbits of Mars and Venus.
 (c)  In asteroid belt between the orbits of Jupiter and Venus.
 (d)  Everywhere in the sky.   (e)  None of the these
(32) The number of spark plugs needed in a diesel engine is:
 (a)  2  (b)  3  (c)  0  (d)  4  (e)  None of these
(33) The half life of a radioactive element is 8-days. How long will it take to reduce it from 10mg to 5mg?
 (a)  4 days (b)  12 days  (c)  16 days (d)  8 days  (e)  None of these
(34) The term ‘Blue Shift’ is used to indicate.
 (a)  Doppler effect in which an object appears bluer when it is moving towards the observer or
observer is moving towards the object.
 (b)  Turning a star from white to blue.  (c)  In future sun would become blue.
 (d)  Black hole was blue at its start.   (e)  None of these
(35) Kilowatt-hour is a unit of:
 (a)  Power (b)  Electric current (c)  Energy (d)  Time (e)  None of these
(36) Fuel used in Fast Breeder Reactor is:
 (a)  Uranium Oxide  (b)  Uranium Plutonium carbide (c)  Uranium Plutonium Oxide
 (d)  Uranium thorium Oxide (e)  None of these
(37) Monsoon is caused by:
 (a)  Seasonal reversal of winds. (b)  Revolution of earth.  (c)  Movement of the clouds.
 (d)  Rise in temperature.  (e)  Rain forests
(38) Which of the following atmospheric layers helps in radio communication?
 (a)  Exosphere (b)  Ionosphere (c)  Troposphere (d)  Stratosphere  (e)  Ozone layer
(39) A moderator is used in nuclear reactor in order to:
 (a)  Accelerate the neutrons   (b)  Slow down the speed of the neutrons
 (c)  Increase the number of electrons  (d)  Decrease the number of electrons
 (e)  None of these
(40)  Sedimentary rocks are:
 (a)  Porous (b)  Hard  (c)  Rough  (d)  Brittle (e)  Volcanic
(41) Which one of the following is a non-metallic mineral?
 (a)  Manganese (b)  Magnesium (c)  Gypsum (d)  Bauxite (e)  None of these
(42) Ozone layer prevents the following radiation from entering the atmosphere:
 (a)  Infra-red   (b)  Ultraviolet (c)  X-rays (d)  Gamma rays (e)  None of these
(43) The phenomenon of Aurora Borealis, the display of red and green lights in northern hemisphere is due to radiations from:
 (a)  Ionosphere    (b)  Troposphere    (c)  Mesosphere     (d)  Stratosphere    (e)  None of these
(44) Yeast is used in making bread because it produces:
 (a)  Carbon dioxide (b)  Sugar (c)  Bacteria  (d)  Oxygen (e)  None of these
(45) Oasis is associated with:
 (a)  Glaciers (b)  Desert (c)  Islands  (d)  Volcanoes  (e)  Fertile land
(46) Quartz crystal in quartz watches works on the principle called:
 (a)  Photoelectric effect  (b)  Stark effect  (c)  Thermionic effect
 (d)  Piezo-electric effect  (e)  None of these
(47) The Fruits without seed, like banana, are called:
 (a)  seedless fruits  (b)  parthenogenesis fruits   (c)  parthenocarpic fruits (d) placental fruits
 (e)  Organic fruits
(48) Animal which captures and readily kills living animals for its food is called:
 (a)  Parasite  (b)  Scavenger  (c)  Predator      (d)  Mammal (e)  None of these
(49) In a railway track, two rails are joined end to end with a gap in between them because:
 (a)  Steel can be saved.  
 (b)  Accidents due to contraction in winter can be avoided.
 (c)  Air gaps are necessary for bearing the weight of running train.
 (d)  Accidents due to expansion in summer can be avoided.
 (e)  All of these
(50) Name the famous book of Ibn-Sina in which he discussed human physiology and medicine:
 (a)  Al-Qanoon     (b)  Al-Masudi (c)  New Renaissance (d)  Tadhkira (e)  None of these

PART – II (Subjective)

Q.2. Write short note on the following by giving their exact life span and contributions to the
 field of science (Accurate facts will be appreciated) (5 x 2)
 (a) Umer Al Khayam (b) Zakariya Al Razi

Q.3. Differentiate between ANY FIVE of the following pairs. (2 x 5)
 (a) Umbra and Penumbra (b) Heavy water and hard water (c) Smog and Smoke
 (d) Myopia and Hypropia (e) Lava and Magma (f) Periscope and perimeter
 (g) X-rays and Gamma rays

Q.4. Sun is a glorious star in our sky. Write down its characteristics with reference to the following data: 
 (a) Distance from earth (b) Mean distance from centre of galaxy
 (c) Velocity around centre of galaxy (d) Revolution period around centre of galaxy
 (e) Equatorial diameter (f) Rotation period at the equator
 (g) Core temperature (h) Solar wind
 (i) The lovely Diamond Ring effect  (i) Future of sun

Q.5. Write briefly (not more than three to four sentences) about ANY FIVE of the following. (2 x 5)
 (a) Allotropy  (b) Nebula (c) Enrichment of Uranium
 (d) Aqua Regia (e) Greenhouse effect (f) Igneous rocks

Q.6. (a) Define GENETIC ENGINEERING. In how many ways Genetic Engineering can be
  applied in different fields of life? Does it benefit society? Discuss.   (1+3+2)
 (b) What do the following scientific abbreviations stand for?   (1/2 each)
  (i)  SONAR (ii)   CNS (iii)   PTFE (iv)  LDL (v)  SARS
  (vi) GUT (vii) BASIC (viii) BTU

Q.7. (a) What are MINERALS? Discuss ANY TWO physical properties thereof. Also mention
  the names of four precious minerals of high commercial value.   
 (b) Define the following:        (1 each)
  (i) Amphibion  (ii) Synchronous satellite (iii) Big Dipper
  (iv) Fermentation  (v) Millennium Bug

Q.8. (a) Define RECEPTORS in man. Name different receptor organs in human body.
  Also discuss ANY TWO of them briefly.      
 (b) Give scientific reasons of the following.      (1 each)
  (i) The dogs pant, the birds open their mouth and the elephants move rapidly their ears.
  (ii) The manholes covers are generally round.

(iii) A geostationary satellite appears standstill to a viewer on the equator of earth.
(iv) We never see birds urinating.
(v) Pasteurized milk has more nourishment than the ordinary boiled milk.
Q.9. (a) Highlight the similarities and differences between animals and plants.   (3+3)
 (b) Write short note on ANY TWO of the following.     (2 each)
  (i) Teleprinter   (ii) Dengue Virus  (iii) Vacuum Cleaner

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